MGMAT Math

This topic has expert replies
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 156
Joined: Sat Sep 04, 2010 2:27 am
Location: Leeds,UK
Thanked: 1 times

MGMAT Math

by lokesh r » Fri Sep 24, 2010 2:39 am
Bill has a small deck of 12 playing cards made up of only 2 suits of 6 cards each. Each of the 6 cards within a suit has a different value from 1 to 6; thus, there are 2 cards in the deck that have the same value.

Bill likes to play a game in which he shuffles the deck, turns over 4 cards, and looks for pairs of cards that have the same value. What is the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value?

A. 8/33
B. 62/165
C. 17/33
D. 103/165
E. 25/33

Ans . C.

Please help me solving this..

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 1179
Joined: Sun Apr 11, 2010 9:07 pm
Location: Milpitas, CA
Thanked: 447 times
Followed by:88 members

by Rahul@gurome » Fri Sep 24, 2010 3:23 am
Solution:
From 12 playing cards, any 4 cards can be selected in 12C4 or 45*11 = 495 ways.

The chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value is = 1 - (chance that Bill finds no pair of cards that have the same value).

Let us calculate the chance that Bill finds no pair of cards that have the same value.

There can be 5 cases.
Note that when we are selecting from second pack, we cannot select from among those cards that have the same value as that selected from first pack of cards. This is to avoid having pairs.
Case (1) All 4 cards selected are from first pack of cards. No. of ways is 6C4 = 15.
Case (2) 3 selected are from first pack and 1 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C3*3C1 = 60.
Case (3) 2 are selected from first pack and 2 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C2*4C2 = 90.
Case (4) 1 is selected from first pack and 3 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C1*5C3 = 60.
Case (5) All 4 cards slected are from second pack. No of ways is 6C4 = 15.

So total number of ways is 15+60+90+60+15 = 240.

So the chance that Bill finds no pair of cards that have the same value is 240/495 = 16/33.
Or the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value is 1- (16/33) = 17/33.

The correct answer is (C) .
Rahul Lakhani
Quant Expert
Gurome, Inc.
https://www.GuroMe.com
On MBA sabbatical (at ISB) for 2011-12 - will stay active as time permits
1-800-566-4043 (USA)
+91-99201 32411 (India)

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Fri Sep 24, 2010 5:07 am
P(at least 1 pair of the same value) = 1 - P(all different values)

Probability that each pick is a different value:
1st pick = 12/12 (because any of the 12 cards can be chosen)
2nd pick = 10/11 (because of the 11 cards remaining, we can't use the mate of the 1st pick, leaving us 11-1=10 good choices)
3rd pick = 8/10 (because of the 10 cards remaining, we can't use the mates of the first 2 picks, leaving us 10-2=8 good choices)
4th pick = 6/9 (because of the 9 cards remaining, we can't use the mates of the first 3 picks, leaving us 9-3=6 good choices)

Since we want all of these events to happen together, we multiply the fractions:
P(all different values) = 12/12 * 10/11 * 8/10 * 6/9 = 16/33

So P(at least 1 pair of the same value) = 1 - 16/33 = 17/33

The correct answer is C.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 156
Joined: Sat Sep 04, 2010 2:27 am
Location: Leeds,UK
Thanked: 1 times

by lokesh r » Fri Sep 24, 2010 2:04 pm
Thanks very much to the instructors.

Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 49
Joined: Thu Aug 26, 2010 11:08 pm
Thanked: 2 times

by narik11 » Mon Sep 27, 2010 10:48 am
Rahul@gurome wrote:Solution:
From 12 playing cards, any 4 cards can be selected in 12C4 or 45*11 = 495 ways.

The chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value is = 1 - (chance that Bill finds no pair of cards that have the same value).

Let us calculate the chance that Bill finds no pair of cards that have the same value.

There can be 5 cases.
Note that when we are selecting from second pack, we cannot select from among those cards that have the same value as that selected from first pack of cards. This is to avoid having pairs.
Case (1) All 4 cards selected are from first pack of cards. No. of ways is 6C4 = 15.
Case (2) 3 selected are from first pack and 1 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C3*3C1 = 60.
Case (3) 2 are selected from first pack and 2 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C2*4C2 = 90.
Case (4) 1 is selected from first pack and 3 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C1*5C3 = 60.
Case (5) All 4 cards slected are from second pack. No of ways is 6C4 = 15.

So total number of ways is 15+60+90+60+15 = 240.

So the chance that Bill finds no pair of cards that have the same value is 240/495 = 16/33.
Or the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the s ame value is 1- (16/33) = 17/33.

The correct answer is (C) .
Hi Rahul,

Can u provide clarification on this.

For having pairs::

3 selected are from first pack and 1 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C3*3C1
2 are selected from first pack and 2 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C2*2C1(For having a pair)*5C1 (Any other card from pack 2)+6C2*2C2(Case for two pairs)

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 1179
Joined: Sun Apr 11, 2010 9:07 pm
Location: Milpitas, CA
Thanked: 447 times
Followed by:88 members

by Rahul@gurome » Mon Sep 27, 2010 7:43 pm
(3 selected are from first pack and 1 from second pack. No. of ways is 6C3*3C1)

Explanation of above statement:
We are calculating the chance that Bill finds no pair of cards that have the same value.
When we select three from first pack, there will be corresponding three cards of the same value in the second pack. Since there cannot be any pairs, when we carry out selection process from second pack, we cannot select from among those 3 cards. So from second pack selection is out of (6-3) or 3 cards.
Or no. of selections such that 3 selected are from first pack and 1 from second pack is 6C3*3C1.

I think if you understand this, you will understand other cases as well.

Hope it is clearer.
Rahul Lakhani
Quant Expert
Gurome, Inc.
https://www.GuroMe.com
On MBA sabbatical (at ISB) for 2011-12 - will stay active as time permits
1-800-566-4043 (USA)
+91-99201 32411 (India)