Sentence Correction-Early American literature

This topic has expert replies
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 8
Joined: Sat Apr 09, 2011 6:20 am
Could some explain this SC problem?


There is nowhere in early American literature where the influence of Jane Austen is so apparent as the novels of James Fenimore Cooper.

A. There is nowhere in early American literature where the influence of Jane Austen is so apparent as
B. In early American literature, nowhere is Jane Austin's influence so apparent than in
C. It is nowhere more apparent in early American literature that Jane Austen was an influence as in
D. Nowhere in early American literature is the influence of Jane Austen more apparent than in
E. Nowhere in early American literature is it more apparent that Jane Austen had an influence than

Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 34
Joined: Mon Nov 15, 2010 12:12 pm
Thanked: 2 times

by rppala90 » Mon Aug 08, 2011 9:49 pm
Is D the OA ?

Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 68
Joined: Tue Jul 19, 2011 9:47 am
Thanked: 6 times

by need720+ » Mon Aug 08, 2011 10:39 pm
IMO D

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 496
Joined: Tue Jun 07, 2011 5:34 am
Thanked: 38 times
Followed by:1 members

by sl750 » Tue Aug 09, 2011 4:18 am
I would go with D

In A - The sentence suggests that the word nowhere is a physical location, which is illogical
In B - The sentence before the comma is modifying nowhere, again this is illogical.
In C - This sentence is wrong on so many levels. It is trying to suggest that Jane Austen herself was in the novels of James Cooper
In D - The Past perfect tense is being used. This is not required as we don't have another action taking place in the past

Hope this helps!

Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 8
Joined: Sat Apr 09, 2011 6:20 am

by eureka123 » Wed Aug 24, 2011 3:10 pm
Thanks.

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 154
Joined: Wed Mar 02, 2016 9:34 am
Thanked: 2 times

by Crystal W » Tue Jun 28, 2016 1:48 am
eureka123 wrote:Could some explain this SC problem?


There is nowhere in early American literature where the influence of Jane Austen is so apparent as the novels of James Fenimore Cooper.

A. There is nowhere in early American literature where the influence of Jane Austen is so apparent as
B. In early American literature, nowhere is Jane Austin's influence so apparent than in
C. It is nowhere more apparent in early American literature that Jane Austen was an influence as in
D. Nowhere in early American literature is the influence of Jane Austen more apparent than in
E. Nowhere in early American literature is it more apparent that Jane Austen had an influence than
Can someone explain this question in details? I am so confused about the inverted sentence.
Thanks in advance!