RBBmba@2014 wrote:In his APPLICATION, carefully coordinating his [application -- OPTIONAL] ESSAYS with his narratives, Richie capitalized on his leadership roles -- does this LOGICALLY make sense SIMPLY as a STANDALONE sentence ?

This sentence is not viable.
Here, it is unclear what in his application serves to modify.
While this prepositional phrase is intended to modify capitalized (conveying that Richie CAPITALIZED in his application), it seems to modify coordinating (conveying that Richie was COORDINATING in his application).

The structure here is as follows:
PREPOSITIONAL MODIFIER + COMMA + VERBing MODIFIER + COMMA + MAIN CLAUSE.
In this structure, it will always be unclear whether the prepositional phrase serves to modify the VERBing modifier or the verb in the main clause.
For this reason, this structure is not viable -- sufficient reason to eliminate A and B in the SC above.

GMATGuruNY wrote: The introductory modifier in the OA includes her and she, each a pronoun without an antecedent.
The referent for these pronouns is Beatrix Potter, the subject of the following clause.
This structure is correct.
When an introductory modifier in an answer choice includes a pronoun without an antecedent, the referent should be the SUBJECT OF THE FOLLOWING CLAUSE.
Consider the following examples from the OG12:

Q7: As ITS sales of computer products have surpassed those of measuring instruments, THE COMPANY...
Q28: Building on civilizations that preceded THEM in coastal Peru, THE MOCHICA...
Q31: Even though many of HER colleagues were convinced that genes were relatively simple and static, BARBARA MCCLINTOCK...

In each case, the introductory modifier includes a pronoun without an antecedent.
In each case, the referent is the subject of the following clause.

I can understand the above COMPLETELY. But confused with one of your other quotes in the forum - https://www.beatthegmat.com/because-the- ... tml#715874

In this link, it seems that your explanation doesn't EXACTLY match with what you mentioned above. So,could you please clarify this ?

Much thanks in advance!

Hi GMATGuruNY - can you please clarify the concerns I raised above. It seems to me a mismatch in your explanations in TWO different questions.

Kindly help me understand where I'm getting this wrong! Would much appreciate your feedback.

RBBmba@2014 wrote:

GMATGuruNY wrote: The introductory modifier in the OA includes her and she, each a pronoun without an antecedent.
The referent for these pronouns is Beatrix Potter, the subject of the following clause.
This structure is correct.
When an introductory modifier in an answer choice includes a pronoun without an antecedent, the referent should be the SUBJECT OF THE FOLLOWING CLAUSE.
Consider the following examples from the OG12:

Q7: As ITS sales of computer products have surpassed those of measuring instruments, THE COMPANY...
Q28: Building on civilizations that preceded THEM in coastal Peru, THE MOCHICA...
Q31: Even though many of HER colleagues were convinced that genes were relatively simple and static, BARBARA MCCLINTOCK...

In each case, the introductory modifier includes a pronoun without an antecedent.
In each case, the referent is the subject of the following clause.

I can understand the above COMPLETELY. But confused with one of your other quotes in the forum - https://www.beatthegmat.com/because-the- ... tml#715874

In this link, it seems that your explanation doesn't EXACTLY match with what you mentioned above. So,could you please clarify this ?

Much thanks in advance!

The rule above is limited to the standard subject pronouns (he, she, it, they), object pronouns (him, her, it, them) and possessive pronouns (his, her, its, their).
It does not apply to there.