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To simplify conversion take 01 year (X) is 0.8 part of 03 year(Y). This makes X=0.8Y OR X=4Y/5. Now rewrite X=4Y/5 as 4Y=5X and Y=5X/4. Does it make sense?
oxfordbound wrote:Hi All,
There is a sample problem with explanation in the Kaplan 2010/2011 book that is confusing the hell out of me. If you refer to page 444 of the Kaplan GMAT Premier 2010-2011 guide, there is a sample problem as follows:
Question: "What was the percent increase in profits for Company X between 1991 and 1993?"
Statement 1) The company earned 20% less profit in 1991 than in 1993.
Answer:
Statement 1 is sufficient. We could reverse the math and figure out percent increase from the given decrease. Let the 1993 profit be P1993 and the 1991 profit be P1991.
The statement can be translated to:
P1991 = 0.80*P1993 OR P1991 = 4/5*P1993
That means P1993 = 5/4*P1991 OR 1.25*P1991
This is a 125% difference, or a 25% increase.
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I understand the entire problem sequence until the highlighted line in red. How did the book determine that P1993 came to be 5/4??? I have been thinking for the last 3 hours of how they acheived this and it makes no sense to me. The closest I can come is to determining that 4/5 * the 1/5 left gives me 4/25 which can be reduced to 1/4 which would give me the 25% but I don't even know if that's the correct method of going about this....please explain!
Oxford Bound
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