Inequality

This topic has expert replies
User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 439
Joined: Sat Aug 09, 2008 8:32 am
Location: India
Thanked: 34 times
Followed by:28 members

by sivaelectric » Sat May 28, 2011 1:50 am
Thanks to all.
If I am wrong correct me :), If my post helped let me know by clicking the Thanks button ;).

Chitra Sivasankar Arunagiri

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 183
Joined: Wed Sep 21, 2011 7:06 am
Location: Washington, DC
Thanked: 6 times
Followed by:2 members
GMAT Score:500

by Rastis » Wed Jan 25, 2012 11:04 am
Mitch,

How did you know to use 1/2 and -1/2 as the numbers you plugged in?

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 626
Joined: Fri Dec 23, 2011 2:50 am
Location: Ahmedabad
Thanked: 31 times
Followed by:10 members

by ronnie1985 » Thu Apr 26, 2012 10:56 am
S1. x^2 > x^3
This is true for x<0 or 0<x<1
For x<0, x^2>x but for 0<x<1, x^2<x. Not Sufficient

S2. x^2>x^4
This is true for -1<x<1
x^2>x for negative x in the domain
x^2<x for positive x in the domain
Not Sufficient

(E)
Follow your passion, Success as perceived by others shall follow you

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 1665
Joined: Thu Nov 03, 2011 7:04 pm
Thanked: 165 times
Followed by:70 members

by karthikpandian19 » Sun Jun 03, 2012 11:42 pm
This is much simple to understand with plugging numbers
GMATGuruNY wrote:
gmatusa2010 wrote:Is x^2 greater than x ?
(1) x^2 is greater than x^3.
(2) x^2 is greater than x^4.
Statement 1: x^2 is greater than x^3
x = 1/2 works, because (1/2)^2 > (1/2)^3. Is (1/2)^2 > 1/2? No.
x = -1/2 works, because (-1/2)^2 > (-1/2)^3. Is (-1/2)^2 > -1/2? Yes.
Since the answer can be both No and Yes, insufficient.

Statement 2: x^2 is greater than x^4
x = 1/2 works, because (1/2)^2 > (1/2)^4. Is (1/2)^2 > 1/2? No.
x = -1/2 works, because (-1/2)^2 > (-1/2)^4. Is (-1/2)^2 > -1/2? Yes.
Since the answer can be both No and Yes, insufficient.

Since 1/2 and -1/2 satisfy both statements, even when the 2 statements are combined, insufficient.

The correct answer is E.
Regards,
Karthik
The source of the questions that i post from JUNE 2013 is from KNEWTON

---If you find my post useful, click "Thank" :) :)---
---Never stop until cracking GMAT---

Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 57
Joined: Sat May 15, 2010 5:46 am
Thanked: 2 times

by anujan007 » Mon Aug 06, 2012 6:07 am
I plugged in 1/2 and -2 for both the options. Did not evaluate a negative fraction and therein made the mistake. I got B which is wrong.

The explanations above are really good. The plugging in approach is most suitable but one needs to be careful in selecting numbers so as to not miss any choice.

Good one.
My attempt to capture my B-School Journey in a Blog : tranquilnomadgmat.blocked

There are no shortcuts to any place worth going.

Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 46
Joined: Sun Dec 18, 2011 7:11 pm
Thanked: 1 times

by sathishkumarjva9888 » Sat Aug 11, 2012 8:15 pm
Answer is E. Plugging in numbers makes life easier with inequality problems. :)

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 171
Joined: Tue Jan 08, 2013 7:24 am
Thanked: 1 times

by rajeshsinghgmat » Tue May 07, 2013 12:22 am
E the answer.

x=1/2 and x=-1/2

User avatar
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 10
Joined: Sun Jun 03, 2012 12:39 am
Location: Chennai, India
GMAT Score:590

by smvjkumar » Mon Jul 22, 2013 4:02 am
please tell me why the below approach is wrong

Dividing both the side of the inequality with same value makes no difference in the relation

So

(i) divide both The side by x

(x^2)/x > (x^3)/x => x > x^2
which gives answer for the question

similarly the same result is possible for (ii) as well
The Biggest hurdle in the Path of success is the fear of failure

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 16207
Joined: Mon Dec 08, 2008 6:26 pm
Location: Vancouver, BC
Thanked: 5254 times
Followed by:1268 members
GMAT Score:770

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Mon Jul 22, 2013 6:48 am
smvjkumar wrote:please tell me why the below approach is wrong

Dividing both the side of the inequality with same value makes no difference in the relation

So

(i) divide both The side by x

(x^2)/x > (x^3)/x => x > x^2
which gives answer for the question

similarly the same result is possible for (ii) as well
Your approach is based on the concept that "Dividing both the side of the inequality with same value makes no difference in the relation." However, this is not true.

Let's look at an example.

Start with the inequality: 6 < 18 (true)
Divide both sides by 2 to get: 3 < 9 (this new inequality is still true)
Divide both sides by -3 to get: -1 < -3 (this new inequality is NOT true)

If we divide (or multiply) both sides of an inequality by a NEGATIVE value, the inequality sign must be reversed. If we divide (or multiply) both sides of an inequality by a POSITIVE value, the inequality sign stays the same.

So, if we take the inequality, x^2 > x^3, and divide both sides by x (as you suggest), we need to first ask, "Is x positive or negative?" Since we don't know whether x is positive or negative, we have no idea what to do with the inequality sign (reverse it, or keep it the same), so we cannot definitively conclude that dividing both sides by x will yield the inequality x > x^2

I hope that helps.

Cheers,
Brent
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image