please explain how to solve this one?
my method..
take 1. since 1/(k-1) > 0, k-1 should be positive.
therefore, k-1 < 1
hence, k < 2 insuff.
take 2. since 1/(k+2) > 0 , k+1 should be positive.
therefore, k+1 < 1
hence k<0 suff.
hence B..
please lemme know what i did wrong??
gmatprep
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Were looking for:ketkoag wrote:please explain how to solve this one?
my method..
take 1. since 1/(k-1) > 0, k-1 should be positive.
therefore, k-1 < 1
hence, k < 2 insuff.
take 2. since 1/(k+2) > 0 , k+1 should be positive.
therefore, k+1 < 1
hence k<0 suff.
hence B..
please lemme know what i did wrong??
k > 0
For Statement #1
1/(k-1) > 0 for all values of k > 1
A definitive Yes
For Statement #2
1/K+1 > 0
Works for K > -1
InSuff
Couldn't k be a fraction. If k = -1/2 than adding 1 will make 1/(k+1) > 0 even though 1/k < 0. Looks like you changed the direction of the inequality. I think it should read:
1/(k+1) > 0
k+1 should be positive.
therefore, k+1 > 0
hence k>-1
Same issue with 1 as well.
Otherwise I think your setup is fine.
1/(k+1) > 0
k+1 should be positive.
therefore, k+1 > 0
hence k>-1
Same issue with 1 as well.
Otherwise I think your setup is fine.