Since the inception of this question is quite silly, I too feel silly asking this but here goes.
I happened to listen to song whose lyrics go like
"I have always loved you"
Considering the formation of the Present Perfect shouldn't this be
"I have loved you always"
Do help
Song
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I think it's acceptable to split "have" and the second verb in present perfect tense with a temporal adverb, e.g., "never," "always," etc. Honestly, I don't have any evidence for that, but the alternate constructions are just way too awkward: "Never have I loved you," "I have loved you never," "I never have loved you."
Actually, that last one doesn't sound bad. I still think it's acceptable to put "always" between "have" and "loved," but "I always have loved you" seems (to me) to be another acceptable construction.
Actually, that last one doesn't sound bad. I still think it's acceptable to put "always" between "have" and "loved," but "I always have loved you" seems (to me) to be another acceptable construction.
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Thanks Andrea, but as far as the GMAT is concerned, will I be seeing something like this?grockit_andrea wrote:I think it's acceptable to split "have" and the second verb in present perfect tense with a temporal adverb, e.g., "never," "always," etc. Honestly, I don't have any evidence for that, but the alternate constructions are just way too awkward: "Never have I loved you," "I have loved you never," "I never have loved you."
Actually, that last one doesn't sound bad. I still think it's acceptable to put "always" between "have" and "loved," but "I always have loved you" seems (to me) to be another acceptable construction.
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I can't imagine that it would be the only difference between two answer choices, as I've never seen it be the deciding factor in a question. I'm actually not sure if I've ever seen it tested at all. I don't like to say that something will *not* be tested, since that's impossible to predict with absolute certainty. But I wouldn't spend much time worrying about it.