Hello everyone,
All is on the title of this topic.
I know that when we compare we should keep parrallelism regarding verb tenses (X did more than Y did/X has done more than Y has done), but what about the verb "to have" when used alone? Do we consider it as a normal verb (X earns more than Y does) or should we use it the same way as the verb "to be"(X does ... more than Y does)?
The same question is asked regarding other particular verbs like "can" ==> X can do more than Y can/does/can do ?
Thank you for your help!
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"X has more than Y has" or "X has more than Y
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mundasingh123
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X earns more than Yis correctKoala wrote:Hello everyone,
All is on the title of this topic.
I know that when we compare we should keep parrallelism regarding verb tenses (X did more than Y did/X has done more than Y has done), but what about the verb "to have" when used alone? Do we consider it as a normal verb (X earns more than Y does) or should we use it the same way as the verb "to be"(X does ... more than Y does)?
The same question is asked regarding other particular verbs like "can" ==> X can do more than Y can/does/can do ?
Thank you for your help!
X can do more than Y can.
Got to keep it parallele and anything unambiguous is Ok
