Dear Friends,
I was having problems in answering the following question.
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the
ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed
into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until
about 3000 B.C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that
was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk
without first toasting the grain. Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest
evidence that the two developments were causally related?
A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably
producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.
B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice of toasting grain were their stonelined graintoasting
pits available for baking bread.
C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to
leaven bread dough.
D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was
reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.
E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it
required less effort to produce.
Please help.
OA after some discussions.
Regards
Deano.
Bread leavening
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Dean Jones wrote:
Premise 1: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread
Premise 2: In the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally.
Premise 3: That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that
was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk
without first toasting the grain.
Conclusion: The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B.C.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?
A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably
producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. => did not support why the The Egyptians did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B.C.
B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice of toasting grain were their stonelined graintoasting
pits available for baking bread. => irrelevant with the yeast, which leaven the bread
C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to
leaven bread dough. => Because the kernel is edible and is removed from the husk without toasting (premise 3). So, gluten in kernel is not destroyed, helping the bread leaven => suite with the premise 2, which states that this thing is discovered accidentally.
D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was
reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. => not explain why the yeast is found.
E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it
required less effort to produce. => irrelevant with the yeast, which leaven the bread. So, out.
Please help.
OA after some discussions.
Regards
Deano.