OG 12 Problem 208

This topic has expert replies
User avatar
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 6
Joined: Tue Aug 31, 2010 6:19 am

OG 12 Problem 208

by menacel » Thu Jan 27, 2011 9:29 pm
I've searched for this problem and found a previous thread, but the answers didn't really help me out, see here: https://www.beatthegmat.com/if-x-not-equ ... tml#264953

The question is:

Given: (x+1/x -1)^2

If x ≠ 0 and x ≠ 1, and if x is replaced by 1/x everywhere in the expression above, then the resulting expression
is equivalent to

Stole this
Image

[spoiler]A (x+1/x-1)^2[/spoiler]

I understand most of the simplification, but what I don't understand is when we introduce an "X" out of no where to eliminate the compound fractions. I must have missed this in grade school, but can anyone explain where it comes from?

[ ((1/x)+1) / ((1/x)-1)]^2 --> [ (x*((1/x)+1)) / (x*((1/x)-1) ] ^2 ==> ( 1+x / 1-x) ^2

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Thu Jan 27, 2011 9:45 pm
Image

Much easier to plug in. Plug in x=2.

Then 1/x = 1/2.

When 1/2 is used in place of x in the given expression, we get:

[ (1/2 + 1) / (1/2 - 1) ]²

= [ (3/2)/(-1/2) ]²

= (-3)²

= 9.

Now we plug x=2 into all the answer choices to see which yields our target of 9.

Only answer choice A works:
[(x+1)/(x-1)]² = [(2+1)/(2-1)]² = 3² = 9.

A quick look at the other answer choices will show that none of them will yield 9 when we plug in x=2.

The correct answer is A.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

User avatar
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 6
Joined: Tue Aug 31, 2010 6:19 am

by menacel » Thu Jan 27, 2011 9:48 pm
Thanks, that's how I got by when I solved it.

But the OG's answer was a tad bit confusing for me.

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Thu Jan 27, 2011 9:55 pm
menacel wrote:Thanks, that's how I got by when I solved it.

But the OG's answer was a tad bit confusing for me.
I discourage my students from reading the math explanations in the OG, which frequently do not offer the best approach.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 3835
Joined: Fri Apr 02, 2010 10:00 pm
Location: Milpitas, CA
Thanked: 1854 times
Followed by:523 members
GMAT Score:770

by Anurag@Gurome » Fri Jan 28, 2011 12:16 am
menacel wrote:I understand most of the simplification, but what I don't understand is when we introduce an "X" out of no where to eliminate the compound fractions. I must have missed this in grade school, but can anyone explain where it comes from?

[ ((1/x)+1) / ((1/x)-1)]^2 --> [ (x*((1/x)+1)) / (x*((1/x)-1) ] ^2 ==> ( 1+x / 1-x) ^2
That's because multiplication of the numerator and denominator of a fraction by the same nonzero quantity doesn't change the value of the fraction. Hence, multiplication with x doesn't change the value of the fraction, also it helps us to convert (1/x) to 1 in both the numerator and denominator.
Anurag Mairal, Ph.D., MBA
GMAT Expert, Admissions and Career Guidance
Gurome, Inc.
1-800-566-4043 (USA)

Join Our Facebook Groups
GMAT with Gurome
https://www.facebook.com/groups/272466352793633/
Admissions with Gurome
https://www.facebook.com/groups/461459690536574/
Career Advising with Gurome
https://www.facebook.com/groups/360435787349781/

Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 9
Joined: Sun Apr 10, 2011 7:22 am

by ahadi » Sat Jun 11, 2011 5:39 pm
I discourage my students from reading the math explanations in the OG, which frequently do not offer the best approach.[/quote]

Hi,

Please advise which explanations for the PS in the OG do you recommend. I agree the OG often provides long-winded answers to most of the questions.

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 516
Joined: Fri Jul 31, 2009 3:22 pm
Thanked: 112 times
Followed by:13 members

by smackmartine » Sat Jun 11, 2011 6:38 pm
IMO A
(x+1/x -1)^2

Replacing x by 1/x we get
[(1+x)/(1-x)]^2 as (1-x)^2 = (x-1)^2 , we can rewrite the expression

(x+1/x -1)^2
So,A

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 1309
Joined: Mon Apr 04, 2011 5:34 am
Location: India
Thanked: 310 times
Followed by:123 members
GMAT Score:750

by cans » Tue Jun 14, 2011 3:37 am
IMO A
If my post helped you- let me know by pushing the thanks button ;)

Contact me about long distance tutoring!
[email protected]

Cans!!