"Awkwardness" is an insufficient reason to eliminate an answer choice.ngk4mba3236 wrote:while I can understand your above explanation, got a few concerns on this -GMATGuruNY wrote:Let's say that January 1, 1900 = the release of the bees.
C: 35 years since African honeybees HAD BEEN RELEASED
Since January 1, 1900 = the release of the bees, on January 1, 1950, the bees HAD already BEEN RELEASED.
Thus, 35 years since African Honeybees HAD BEEN RELEASED could imply January 1, 1950 + 35 years = January 1, 1985.
Not the intended meaning.
Eliminate C.
1. isn't the sentence structure of option C itself awkward ?
What one reader considers awkward, another reader may not.
Try to identity a clear error of grammar or meaning.
When since serves to express not causality but the passage of TIME, it must refer to a DEFINITE MOMENT in the past:2. when "since" is used to denote a time frame, doesn't the perfect tense come into play by default ? I mean, isn't this construction -- since + past/present perfect + time -- correct, generally ?
since February
since 1975
since the start of the space age
The present present and past perfect tenses serve to express actions that take place at INDEFINITE MOMENTS in the past.
For this reason, since + PERFECT TENSE cannot serve to express the passage of time.
Generally, when since serves to express the passage of time, the present perfect is required not in the since-modifier but in the MAIN CLAUSE:
Since 1990, the global economy HAS GROWN.
This line of reasoning is valid.3. if we have "35 years since African Honeybees WAS RELEASED", then will it imply the following ?
January 1, 1900 + 35 years = January 1, 1935
Please note that the verb should be were released, since the subject -- honeybees -- is plural.