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expert please explain me this CR

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diebeatsthegmat GMAT Titan Default Avatar
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expert please explain me this CR Post Thu Mar 17, 2011 7:11 am
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  • Lap #[LAPCOUNT] ([LAPTIME])
    A study attempting to link fertility with increased sexual availability concluded that women unconsciously dress more attractively during . The study was conducted using pairs of photographs of 200 women and volunteer viewers who chose the photograph in which they thought the woman appeared more attractive. Researchers found that 67% of the time viewers chose the photo taken when the woman was ovulating.

    The methodology of the study above is flawed for which of the following reasons?

    (A) The study fails to specify what is meant by the word attractive, leaving it up to the opinion of the individual viewer.
    (B) Because all the viewers were male, the results of the study were skewed by individual responses to attractive women.
    (C) The study fails to account for the psychological complexity of sexual desire in women
    (D) The study assumes that women will dress more attractively when they have greater sexual desire.
    (E) Most women do not know when they are ovulating, and so would not dress more attractively on that day.

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    Geva@EconomistGMAT GMAT Instructor
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    Post Thu Mar 17, 2011 8:04 am
    The premises are that women dress more attractively when ovulating (which is the result of the study). The conclusion takes it one step further, though, and links fertility to sexual availability: in simple words, if a woman is ovulating (which means she is fertile), then she is more "available sexually".

    The argument is flawed because it does not bridge the gap between "dressed attractively" to "sexually available". A woman could conceivably dress attractively while ovulating (and be part of the 67%), but not be more sexually available - as in, does not necessarily want to have sex more than when she is not ovulating, but maybe just wants to dress nice. The answer is D.

    No way will a real GMAT question touch this un-PC issue with a ten foot pole.

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    Post Thu Mar 17, 2011 8:52 am
    Opinion: what is the method here... some selected people judging 200 photographs of women.. How to hit this???

    A) Opinion of individual viewer is not weakening here
    B) The argument never said all are male .. but this is not bad ... kept it open
    C) what is this complexity in women... Dont say to women that they are complex...Dismissed
    D) Hitting the first line... not bad..but not hitting my opinion
    E) How would we know that photo is taken in day or night??

    B>D for me here... Done..Now I can read what Geva wrote...I dont agree with first responses from experts because they are always almost correct... Smile

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    Post Thu Mar 17, 2011 9:01 am
    Hi Geva,

    How is this D... In methodolagy I see, "volunteers", "photographs" and "ovulating" .... How did this dress code during mating time came into picture...

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    Geva@EconomistGMAT GMAT Instructor
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    Post Thu Mar 17, 2011 9:04 am
    HSPA wrote:
    Hi Geva,

    How is this D... In methodolagy I see, "volunteers", "photographs" and "ovulating" .... How did this dress code during mating time came into picture...
    "concluded that women unconsciously dress more attractively during _."

    I assume the missing word is "ovulation".

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    Post Thu Mar 17, 2011 9:37 am
    Yes nice assumption.. D is good..

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    Post Fri Mar 18, 2011 9:07 pm
    Geva@MasterGMAT wrote:
    The premises are that women dress more attractively when ovulating (which is the result of the study). The conclusion takes it one step further, though, and links fertility to sexual availability: in simple words, if a woman is ovulating (which means she is fertile), then she is more "available sexually".

    The argument is flawed because it does not bridge the gap between "dressed attractively" to "sexually available". A woman could conceivably dress attractively while ovulating (and be part of the 67%), but not be more sexually available - as in, does not necessarily want to have sex more than when she is not ovulating, but maybe just wants to dress nice. The answer is D.

    No way will a real GMAT question touch this un-PC issue with a ten foot pole.
    GEVA i agree to the concept u've presented...isn't this a classic case of correlation in which a reverse relationship is also possible

    diebeatsthegmat GMAT Titan Default Avatar
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    Post Mon Mar 21, 2011 11:23 am
    Geva@MasterGMAT wrote:
    The premises are that women dress more attractively when ovulating (which is the result of the study). The conclusion takes it one step further, though, and links fertility to sexual availability: in simple words, if a woman is ovulating (which means she is fertile), then she is more "available sexually".

    The argument is flawed because it does not bridge the gap between "dressed attractively" to "sexually available". A woman could conceivably dress attractively while ovulating (and be part of the 67%), but not be more sexually available - as in, does not necessarily want to have sex more than when she is not ovulating, but maybe just wants to dress nice. The answer is D.

    No way will a real GMAT question touch this un-PC issue with a ten foot pole.
    thank you

    vjsharma25 Just gettin' started! Default Avatar
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    Post Tue Mar 29, 2011 7:29 am
    The OA provided at other forum is A.

    http://gmatclub.com/forum/cr-research-78331.html

    Post Tue Mar 29, 2011 11:13 am
    There is no official answer, there is not even a correct answer. As this is a deeply flawed question. As Geva indicated the subject matter is the last thing that would EVER appear on the GMAT.

    The GMAT will not say anything about women or minorities or really anyone that would be this provocative.

    But beyond that it is not a good question.

    It says "the methodology...is flawed for which of the following reasons?"

    Well, A is correct -- the study it is flawed because we certainly do not know if the women who attempt to dress more attractively will be judged by the men as "appearing more attractive." It may have more to do with the features of the woman as opposed to the way she is dressed.

    As I write about this I am unhappy to have to do so as I find it offensive to discuss why these men find the women attractive in the future I would suggest that a question like this not be discussed.

    Anyway, to continue with why this question is not only offensive but not well-written.

    Choice A names a flaw as we have seen, so does choice B, it is correct that the individual definition of attraction may have sued. C is also a flaw. I mean we are to believe that the way women dress is indicative of sexual desire. D has the same problem that C does. It equates two things that may not be the same at all.

    And what about E? Not sure if this is true at all but if assumed on the GMAT to be true this would be a flaw.

    So None of the Answers are right because they all are flaws.

    So let's forget for a moment that the question is offensive. It is just not good at all.

    Are there not enough good questions out there that we are studying questions with no correct answers? I know this was the GMAT Club question of the day and that is just too bad.

    By the way, I certainly agree with HSPA about experts not responding first if they just want to give an answer or explanation...but to let you know that there is a problem with the question as Geva did here is good.

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