Critical Reasoning

UCLA Sociologist: Between 1962 and 2012, the marriage rate (that is the percentage of adult women over 16 who get married for the first time each year) fell from 110 marriages a year per 1,000 unmarried women to just 37, a stunning 66 percent decline. Given this trend, there will likely be no women getting married for the first time by 2050!

Which of the following, if true, exposes a flaw in the sociologist's reasoning?

A)The average age of marriage has increased dramatically in the past 20 years.
B)Today's divorce rates are expected to rise dramatically over the next 40 years.
C)More women are expected to get married for a second and third time in the next 40 years.
D)Many women are deciding to simply live with their partners rather than get married.
E)Marriage is much less likely to occur today for the first time than it was in the 1960's.

A is the only answer that makes sense here. If the average age is increasing for women getting married, then you would expect a decline in marriage rate until the average age settles again.

+1 for {A}

I think letter 'D' also make sense, as I understand, it is also similar with the statement in letter 'A'. It can also affect the age of women not getting married. Is my statement correct? any comments are appreciated.