Combination and Permutation Manhattan

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by pzazz12 » Mon Oct 04, 2010 4:33 am
GMATGuruNY wrote:
tester_twelve wrote:
Ian Stewart wrote:
jason49 wrote: I think that C is correct, trying to figure out what tgmat calculated, because it obviously includes more cases than necessary.

Can somebody comment on this?
Nice find. In probability questions, when you see the words 'at least', as in this question, that often means that you would need to consider a few different cases if you did the problem directly. So this is often a clue that it will be faster to do the opposite problem: determine the probability that the event does not happen, then subtract from 1. That's exactly what sudhir did above, and that's exactly how I'd approach the problem as well.

That said, it is possible to do the problem directly, just as long as we break down the problem correctly. This solution is not quite right:
torontogmat.com wrote:It does not matter which card is turned first.

There is a 1/11 chance that the next card turned will match. If it doesn't,
there is a 2/10 chance that the following card will match. If it still doesn't,
there is a 3/9 chance that the final card will match.

1/11 + 1/5 + 1/3 = 103 / 165.
The probability, for example, that the last card matches one of the first three is not equal to 1/3, which is what the above solution assumes. It is only equal to 1/3 when we know that none of the first three cards match. We can adjust this solution to get the correct answer, however:

We get at least one pair IF:

[1+2 match] OR [(1+2 do not match)AND(1/2 matches 3)] OR [(1,2,3 do not match)AND(4 matches 1,2 or 3)]

The above solution missed the AND conditions. Solving:

1/11 + (10/11)(1/5) + [(10/11)(8/10)](1/3) = 15/165 + 30/165 + 40/165 = 85/165 = 17/33

Still, that's more difficult than the approach sudhir took above, which is much better.
Hi Ian/others,

Is there a way to solve this problem by first starting out with the total number of ways 4 cards can be drawn as the denominator (i.e. 12C4) and then determine what we're looking for in the numerator?
Yes, although it's not the approach that I would recommend.

Total number of ways to choose a combination of 4 cards from 12 choices = 12C4 = 495.

To get at least 1 pair of the same value, we need either to combine 1 pair of the same value with 1 pair of different values or to combine 2 pairs, each of which is of the same value.

Total number of ways to choose exactly 1 pair of the same value:
Number of ways to choose a pair of the same value = 6

Number of ways to choose a pair of different values from the 10 remaining cards:
1st card = 10 choices
2nd card = 8 choices (9 cards left, but we can't choose the mate of the card just chosen, leaving us 9-1= 8 choices)
Order of the non-matching cards doesn't matter, so we divide by 2!: 10*8/2! = 40.

Multiplying, we have 6*40=240 ways to combine a pair of the same value with a pair of different values.

Total number of ways to choose 2 pairs, each of which is of the same value:
We have 6 pairs to choose from, and the order of the pairs doesn't matter, so 6C2 = 15.

So total number of ways to get at least 1 pair of the same value = 240+15 = 255.

P(at least 1 pair of the same value) = 255/495 = 51/99 = 17/33.

thank you ............is there any way to solve it........

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by fskilnik@GMATH » Thu Nov 18, 2010 12:35 pm
Beautiful arguments here, for sure!

Let me try to contribute a little bit to it all, with an alternative (pretty quick and clear) solution (in my opinion):

There are 6 ways of choosing a pair of the same value: (1,1), (2,2), ... , (6,6) and for each of these choices, there are 10C2 = 45 ways of choosing the other two cards, without any restriction! (We are not taking into account the order of the cards chosen in this "remaining" two cards, for sure.)

Now, if you realize that, from the 45 possible choices of the "remaining" two cards, there are exactly 5 choices which consists of (another) pair of the same value (say (2,2), (3,3), .... , (6,6) in the case the first pair chosen was (1,1)), then we are sure we count 45-5 = 40 cases of NOT BEING a pair the "remaining" two cards.

Finally, from the multiplicative principle we know that:

> there are 6*(45-5) = 240 possibilities of exactly 1 pair of the same value and

> there are HALF 6*5 = 30/2 = 15 possibilities of exactly 2 pairs of the same value
(Half because we counted say (1,1) and (2,2) as different from (2,2) and (1,1)... and we shouldn´t!)

We got 240+15 = 255 as the "numerator"; the denumerator is surely 12C4 = 495 and the ratio is the answer we were looking for!

Regards,
Fabio.
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by nihal401 » Wed Aug 28, 2013 2:26 am
so what I did is

the probability of getting atleast one pair is:=

1. (exactly one pair x not a pair) + (exactly 2 pairs)

2/12 x 9/10 + 2/12 x 2/10

the reason for this is, that initially i took 2 cards from a set of 12 cards that are similar so i got 2/12 then i took 2 cards that are not similar so there are a total of 10 cards left (as i have already taken out two cards) and i can pick up 2 cards that are not similar in 9 ways(as there are 9 cards that are different. similarly i did for exactly 2 pairs.

Can some one help me solve this question from the combination method.

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by nihal401 » Wed Aug 28, 2013 2:42 am
hi Fabio

i got your explanation and thank you soo much for your help. how ever i am not able to understand as to why you divided 6*5 by two.

though i get it, that the values do get repeated however i am not able to understand the concept as who 6 pairs and 5 pairs have the same repetition

thanks
Nihal


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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Wed Aug 28, 2013 6:34 am
Kaunteya wrote:Bill has a small deck of 12 playing cards made up of only 2 suits of 6 cards each. Each of the 6 cards within a suit has a different value from 1 to 6; thus, there are 2 cards in the deck that have the same value.

Bill likes to play a game in which he shuffles the deck, turns over 4 cards, and looks for pairs of cards that have the same value. What is the chance that Bill finds at least one pair of cards that have the same value?


a. 8/33

b. 62/165

c. 17/33

d. 103/165

e. 25/33
We can also solve this question using probability rules.

First, recognize that P(at least one pair) = 1 - P(no pairs)

P(no pairs) = P(select any 1st card AND select any non-matching card 2nd AND select any non-matching card 3rd AND select any non-matching card 4th)
= P(select any 1st card) x P(select any non-matching card 2nd) x P(select any non-matching card 3rd) x P(select any non-matching card 4th)
= 1 x 10/11 x 8/10 x 6/9
= 16/33

So, P(at least one pair) = 1 - 16/33
= 17/33
= C

Cheers,
Brent
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by vipulgoyal » Wed Aug 28, 2013 10:46 pm
Experts, please tell me where i am wrong

6/12*1/11*5/10*3/9*1/12(why 1/12 because order doesnt matters so dividing with number of arrangements by which AABC "one pair" can be arranged
+
6/12*1/11*5/10*1/10*1/6 (why dividing by 1/6 "no of arrangements two pairs can be arranged AABB)