We have to determine whether x > y.M7MBA wrote:Is x > y ?
(1) ax > ay
(2) (a^2)*x > (a^2)*y
The OA is option B.
Is sufficient the statement (2)? Experts, can you help me here? Why is not sufficient the statement (1)?
(1) ax > ay
=> none of x, y, and a is 0.
Case 1: Say a = +1, then we have x > y. The answer is No.
Case 2: Say a = -1, then we have -x > -y
Multiplying the inequaity with -1, we have x < y. Note the reversal of sign of inquality. The answer is No.
No unique answer. Insufficient
(2) (a^2)*x > (a^2)*y
Since irrespective of the sign of a, the value of a^2 is positive, thus, we can cancel a^2 from both the sides withougt changing the sign of inquality.
Thus, (a^2)*x > (a^2)*y => x > y. The answer is Yes. Sufficient
The correct answer: B
Hope this helps!
-Jay
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