If n=1 and (m−n) / p=2, then which of the following is not a possible value of m?
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2
The OA is D.
Can I solve this PS question without knowing anything about p?
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If n=1 and (m−n) / p=2, then which of the following . . .
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EconomistGMATTutor
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Hello M7MBA. Yes, of course. Let's take a look at it.
We have that n=1, so $$\frac{m-n}{p}=2\ <=>\frac{m-1}{2}=2.$$
If we replace m=1 on the equation above we will get $$\frac{1-1}{2}=0\ and\ 0\ne2.$$
That is why m can not be 1.
The correct option is D.
I hope this may help you.
Feel free to ask me if you have any doubt.
We have that n=1, so $$\frac{m-n}{p}=2\ <=>\frac{m-1}{2}=2.$$
If we replace m=1 on the equation above we will get $$\frac{1-1}{2}=0\ and\ 0\ne2.$$
That is why m can not be 1.
The correct option is D.
I hope this may help you.
Feel free to ask me if you have any doubt.
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