Sentence Correction

The Federal investigators at Stapleton Industries have failed to find any evidence to suggest that the unusually large contributions to its accounts are derived from government kickbacks or that its officers are guilty of improper relations with industry regulators.

The above sentence is correct. One way ot make it wrong is:


The Federal investigators at Stapleton Industries have failed to find any evidence to suggest that the unusually large contributions to its accounts had been derived from government kickbacks or that its officers are guilty of improper relations with industry regulators.

The explanation is:

""are derived" vs. "had been derived". The present tense "are derived" is correct. The past perfect "had been derived" would only be used to contrast with another past tense verb, which isn't the case here."

My Q: Can't we contrast it with failing of the investigators which happened in past? And thus the second one (has been derived) would be correct? Thanks.

A past perfect verb can serve to express an action completed before a present perfect verb.
An OA in GMATPrep:
Ozone HAD LONG APPEARED Immune to human influence; we HAVE NOW REALIZED, though, that emissions of industrial chlorofluorocarbons deplete the ozone layer.
Conveyed sequence:
PRIOR TO OUR REALIZATION about emissions depleting the ozone layer -- a realization that took place sometime IN THE PAST -- ozone HAD LONG APPEARED immune to human influence.

towerSpider wrote:..any evidence that has suggested to suggest..

This "suggested to suggest" is really strange. Can you let me know the source of this?

"are derived" vs. "had been derived". The present tense "are derived" is correct. The past perfect "had been derived" would only be used to contrast with another past tense verb, which isn't the case here."

Hello Mitch, can't we have "have been derived" here? Or are both correct? Am confused.

bonetlobo wrote:

towerSpider wrote:..any evidence that has suggested to suggest..

This "suggested to suggest" is really strange. Can you let me know the source of this?

"are derived" vs. "had been derived". The present tense "are derived" is correct. The past perfect "had been derived" would only be used to contrast with another past tense verb, which isn't the case here."

Hello Mitch, can't we have "have been derived" here? Or are both correct? Am confused.

I apologize for misquoting. I have corrected it. And yes, considering how/what Mitch explained, it appears both are correct?

bonetlobo wrote: Hello Mitch, can't we have "have been derived" here?.

The present perfect tense serves to express an action that took place at an INDETERMINATE MOMENT in the past.
The investigators HAVE FAILED to find evidence that the contributions HAVE BEEN DERIVED from kickbacks.
Here, both verbs -- have failed and have been derived -- are in the present perfect tense.
Since each verb refers to a DIFFERENT indeterminate moment in the past, the sequence of events becomes too muddled.

The SC above is modeled very closely after SC128 in the OG13.
I suggest that you focus on the official SC.
For a discussion of the tense issues in SC128, check here:
https://www.beatthegmat.com/og13-sc-ques ... 78363.html