can't one just calculate p(BBB) = P(B1*P(B2)*P(B3) = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8

p(GGG) = P(G1)*P(G2)*P(G3) = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8

p(BBB)+ p(GGG)= 1/8 + 1/8 = 1/4

anything wrong with this straightforward approach?

i eliminated a,d,e and then guessed c instead of b. is c correct?
this is one of those questions to think about for one minute and then answer and move on!

so why can the answer not be that 1,000 red chips were picked and one purple? 1,000 * 11 = 11,000 8 * 1 = 8 11,000 * 8 = 88,000. then the answer would be a. (1 purple chip. ) the question does not limit the number of chips drawn. or pick two purple chips 8*8 = 64. 125 red chips is 11*125= 1,375. 64*...

d. we know it is 12/h. where h < 15 and 18. so answers a,b,e are out. leaves c and d . c < 1 so not likely. answer is then d. or do the math. which i see on the other answers. my answer is done in 15 seconds. the math takes just 45 seconds or so. one should do the math to be sure on a question like ...

E.