Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging , he manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.
A) Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging
B) Because of plunging prices for computer chips, which is due to an oversupply,
C) Because computer chip prices have been sent plunging, which resulted from an oversupply,
D) Due to plunging computer chips prices from an oversupply,
E) Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chips prices have been sent plunging,
OAA
Please explain the role of HAS in OA, also please explain why we choose BECAUSE over DUE TO?
Many thanks in advance,
Kavin
5-Day Free Trial
5-day free, full-access trial TTP
Available with Beat the GMAT members only code
MORE DETAILS
computer chips
This topic has expert replies
GMAT/MBA Expert
-
ceilidh.erickson
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 2095
- Joined: Tue Dec 04, 2012 3:22 pm
- Thanked: 1443 times
- Followed by:247 members
There is no significant difference between BECAUSE OF and DUE TO, generally. Those would both be prepositional phrases that would take an object. BECAUSE by itself must take a dependent clause. In this case:please explain why we choose BECAUSE over DUE TO?
Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging...
We could rearrange this clause to be a prepositional phrase with DUE TO:
Due to an oversupply of computer chips that has sent prices plunging...
This would be grammatically correctly, but slightly less active. The meaning of the sentence requires that "prices plunging" is part of the cause-effect relationship that led to closing of factories. Using a clause with "has sent prices plunging" as a verb is thus more direct than using "THAT has sent prices plunging" as a modifier.
In any case, the answer choices here that use DUE TO change the meaning entirely:
D) Due to plunging computer chips prices from an oversupply,
The cause-effect relationship is not at all clear here. Are prices "from an oversupply"? Are chips? Making this a clause would be much more clear.
E) Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chips prices have been sent plunging,
A prepositional phrase starting with ", with" should modify a CLAUSE before it, not just a noun. This is certainly not the most concise way to phrase this.
Ceilidh Erickson
EdM in Mind, Brain, and Education
Harvard Graduate School of Education
EdM in Mind, Brain, and Education
Harvard Graduate School of Education
GMAT/MBA Expert
-
ceilidh.erickson
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 2095
- Joined: Tue Dec 04, 2012 3:22 pm
- Thanked: 1443 times
- Followed by:247 members
The present perfect (HAS/HAVE + past participle) is often interchangeable with the simple past tense. The only additional implication is that the action is more recent, and/or that its effects are still lingering.Please explain the role of HAS in OA
I read the book. --> at some point in the past. No additional info.
I have read the book. --> likely recently, or at least I remember what I learned in the book.
"The manufacturer HAS announced" implies that this announcement has ongoing effects into the present.
Ceilidh Erickson
EdM in Mind, Brain, and Education
Harvard Graduate School of Education
EdM in Mind, Brain, and Education
Harvard Graduate School of Education
Hi Ceilidh ,ceilidh.erickson wrote:The present perfect (HAS/HAVE + past participle) is often interchangeable with the simple past tense. The only additional implication is that the action is more recent, and/or that its effects are still lingering.Please explain the role of HAS in OA
I read the book. --> at some point in the past. No additional info.
I have read the book. --> likely recently, or at least I remember what I learned in the book.
"The manufacturer HAS announced" implies that this announcement has ongoing effects into the present.
Thank you so much for your explanation.
What I understood is that Present participle is when something started in the past and continue in the present?
Please confirm if my understanding is correct.
Thanks,
Kavin
-
bubblehead0922
- Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
- Posts: 19
- Joined: Thu Jul 14, 2016 9:52 am
Hi Ceilidh,ceilidh.erickson wrote:The present perfect (HAS/HAVE + past participle) is often interchangeable with the simple past tense. The only additional implication is that the action is more recent, and/or that its effects are still lingering.Please explain the role of HAS in OA
I read the book. --> at some point in the past. No additional info.
I have read the book. --> likely recently, or at least I remember what I learned in the book.
"The manufacturer HAS announced" implies that this announcement has ongoing effects into the present.
Thanks for your explanation on the present perfect tense. I am also confused with this question. Following the 60-day study plan, I learned somewhere saying that the "present perfect tense" should company with a "past tense" in a sentence to indicate the chronological order of the actions.
According to OA, the sentence should look like this:
Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.
To me, placing both actions,"send prices plunging" and " announce", in the present perfect tense looks wired, leading me to pick D instead.
Could you please clarify my confusion so that I would not make the same kind of mistakes in the future?
Thx,
Victoria
