GMAT PREP : Co-ordinate/Number Theory
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- cubicle_bound_misfit
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My reasoning was as a and b should have same sign (+/-) x should have opposite sign of a...where is it wrong?
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Cubicle Bound Misfit
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- Ian Stewart
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If (-x, y) is in the same quadrant as (-a, b), then x and a have the same sign, and y and b have the same sign.
You're certainly right that a and b have the same sign; that information is in the question itself. I wonder if you combined both statements accidentally when you chose your answer.
Statement 1 alone tells us that x and y have the same sign; that isn't enough unless we know some relationship between the signs of x and y and the signs of a and b.
Statement 2 alone tells us that a and x have the same sign. We still don't know about b and y.
Together, from 1, y and x have the same sign, and from 2, x and a have the same sign, and from the question, a and b have the same sign. So every letter has the same sign, and we can certainly answer the question.
You're certainly right that a and b have the same sign; that information is in the question itself. I wonder if you combined both statements accidentally when you chose your answer.
Statement 1 alone tells us that x and y have the same sign; that isn't enough unless we know some relationship between the signs of x and y and the signs of a and b.
Statement 2 alone tells us that a and x have the same sign. We still don't know about b and y.
Together, from 1, y and x have the same sign, and from 2, x and a have the same sign, and from the question, a and b have the same sign. So every letter has the same sign, and we can certainly answer the question.
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