Is 1/(a-b)<(b-a)?
1. a<b
2. 1<|a-b|
The question is 1<(b-a)(a-b)
Now (b-a)*(a-b) = -1(a-b)*(a-b) = -(a-b)^2
hence the question asks if 1 < a negative number which is absurd.
The OA is [spoiler](A)[/spoiler]
Something Wrong with the question???
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Hi!ronnie1985 wrote:Is 1/(a-b)<(b-a)?
1. a<b
2. 1<|a-b|
The question is 1<(b-a)(a-b)
Now (b-a)*(a-b) = -1(a-b)*(a-b) = -(a-b)^2
hence the question asks if 1 < a negative number which is absurd.
The OA is [spoiler](A)[/spoiler]
Remember - when inequalities and variables are involved, you have to be very careful with your manipulations!
You cannot simply cross-multiply by a-b, since it's possible that a-b is negative. If a-b IS negative, then when you cross multiply you get:
Is 1/(a-b)<(b-a)?
Is 1 > (b-a)(a-b)?
Is 1 > -1(a-b)(a-b)?
Is 1 > -(a-b)^2?
So, if a-b is positive, you get a "NO" answer to the question; if a-b is negative you get a "YES" answer to the question.
Since (1) tells us that a-b<0, it's sufficient to answer the question. (2) doesn't tell us anything about the sign of (a-b), so it's insufficient. Choose (A)!
* * *
As an aside, if you ever wonder whether a question is valid, make sure you include the source! (Even better, always include the source.)
Stuart Kovinsky | Kaplan GMAT Faculty | Toronto
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