In Kaplan and Manhattan Review--Pronoun None is said to be singular only.
In Mgmat it depends on of construction -the SANAM rule.
Can someone please clarify.
Thanks
Khurram
Which is correct -Kaplan/Manhattan Review VS MGMAT /PR
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From Kaplan
NOT ONE OF THE MEN AND WOMEN WHO DESIGNED THE X WAS AWARE THAT ITS APPLICATION WOULD BE AS FAR REACHING AS HAS BEEN THE CASE.
Also what about the rule one of the plural noun that/who plural verb.
Why does it not apply in this case.
What if the sentence started with One and Not one.
NOT ONE OF THE MEN AND WOMEN WHO DESIGNED THE X WAS AWARE THAT ITS APPLICATION WOULD BE AS FAR REACHING AS HAS BEEN THE CASE.
Also what about the rule one of the plural noun that/who plural verb.
Why does it not apply in this case.
What if the sentence started with One and Not one.
Last edited by khurram on Tue May 20, 2008 9:18 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to solve the puzzle contained in the last week's newspaper.
(a) none of my friends have been able to solve
(b) none of my friends was able to solve
(c) not one of my friends has yet been able to solve
(d) none of my friends has been able to solve
(e) nobody among my friends have solved
Kaplan says that the answer is (d) but I think otherwise. According to Kaplan 800 none is singular (What? I thought none was a SANAM pronoun and hence can be singular or plural).
From another post to show what I am talking about.
Thanks
Khurram
I guess easiest if we can get examples to bettter understand.
(a) none of my friends have been able to solve
(b) none of my friends was able to solve
(c) not one of my friends has yet been able to solve
(d) none of my friends has been able to solve
(e) nobody among my friends have solved
Kaplan says that the answer is (d) but I think otherwise. According to Kaplan 800 none is singular (What? I thought none was a SANAM pronoun and hence can be singular or plural).
From another post to show what I am talking about.
Thanks
Khurram
I guess easiest if we can get examples to bettter understand.
Here are some tips.
None(pronoun) may specify a singular verb when 'none' can logically be constructed as singular(when 'not one' or 'no one' can be substituted for 'none')
'None of us wholly blameless'.....A plural verb should be used when 'none' applies to more than one(when 'no persons,not any of a group of persons or things' can be substituted for 'none')
E.g : None are more wretched than victims of natural disasters.
Look in 1st example.
Not one can be replaced by none pronoun...so according to above rule it can take singular verb.
In another example.
None of my friends can be replaced with no one of my friends so again it should take singular verb.
I hope I have cleared your doubt.
None(pronoun) may specify a singular verb when 'none' can logically be constructed as singular(when 'not one' or 'no one' can be substituted for 'none')
'None of us wholly blameless'.....A plural verb should be used when 'none' applies to more than one(when 'no persons,not any of a group of persons or things' can be substituted for 'none')
E.g : None are more wretched than victims of natural disasters.
Look in 1st example.
Not one can be replaced by none pronoun...so according to above rule it can take singular verb.
In another example.
None of my friends can be replaced with no one of my friends so again it should take singular verb.
I hope I have cleared your doubt.
Saurabh