I encountered below question as Sentence correction in GMAT Prep 1.
I easily eliminated the Original underlined part and other 2 options.
But got stuck with the remaining 2.
complete the sentence :
Some analysts expect automakers___________________________
1) to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends.
2) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been.
GMAT Prep SC Confusion
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Last edited by phoenix111 on Thu Oct 13, 2011 9:25 pm, edited 2 times in total.
I think 2) would be answer..because of parallelism issue with 1)
Please correct me If I am wrong!!
Please correct me If I am wrong!!
phoenix111 wrote:complete the sentence :
Some analyst expects automakers___________________________
1) to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends.
2) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been.
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phoenix111 wrote:I encountered below question as Sentence correction in GMAT Prep 1.
I easily eliminated the Original underlined part and other 2 options.
But got stuck with the remaining 2.
complete the sentence :
Some analysts expect automakers___________________________
1) to be more conservative than they have been in setting dividends.
2) to set dividends more conservatively than they have been.
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- Brian@VeritasPrep
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Hey guys,
Probably the most noticeable difference here is the placement of the pronoun "they". In option 1, "they" clearly refers back to automakers. But by option 2, "dividends" have been introduced to the sentence, too, so "they' could refer back to either "automakers" or "dividends". So #2 offers a pronoun issue that isn't a problem in #1.
On top of that, then, "they have been" in #2 gives you a verb ("have been") for which we don't really know whether it's "dividends are set more conservatively than they have been set" or "automakers will set dividends more conservatively than the automakers have been (setting them)".
#1 is clearer, putting "in setting dividends" there to further clarify that "they" refers to "automakers" (the dividends don't set themselves.
Probably the most noticeable difference here is the placement of the pronoun "they". In option 1, "they" clearly refers back to automakers. But by option 2, "dividends" have been introduced to the sentence, too, so "they' could refer back to either "automakers" or "dividends". So #2 offers a pronoun issue that isn't a problem in #1.
On top of that, then, "they have been" in #2 gives you a verb ("have been") for which we don't really know whether it's "dividends are set more conservatively than they have been set" or "automakers will set dividends more conservatively than the automakers have been (setting them)".
#1 is clearer, putting "in setting dividends" there to further clarify that "they" refers to "automakers" (the dividends don't set themselves.
Brian Galvin
GMAT Instructor
Chief Academic Officer
Veritas Prep
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GMAT Instructor
Chief Academic Officer
Veritas Prep
Looking for GMAT practice questions? Try out the Veritas Prep Question Bank. Learn More.
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I totally agree with brian. I used the same logic to go for 1.
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