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by nafiul9090 » Mon Apr 25, 2011 5:40 pm
When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf
and are then asked whether they can hear the
hypnotist, they reply, "No." Some theorists try to
explain this result by arguing that the selves of
hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate
parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated
from the part that replies.
Which of the following challenges indicates the most
serious weakness in the attempted explanation
described above?
(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, "Yes"?
(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any
special explanation?
(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the
hypnotist's suggestion that they are deaf?
(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the
same way in the situation described?
(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same
for all subjects?


help needed i jst dont understand the reasoning here??

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by vineeshp » Mon Apr 25, 2011 5:56 pm
You can prephase the answer here.

If the part that is deaf (or believes so) is separated into the part that hears the question, then the part that hears the question has no reason to think that there is a deaf part.

In that scenario, we expect the part that hears the question to say yes.

This prephased answer is already available in A.
Vineesh,
Just telling you what I know and think. I am not the expert. :)