His wife divorced him because he HAD HAD an affair.
If she had had more money, she would have bought herself a new dress.
So, my question is.... why had had ? The book says - "First had signals the past perfect tense while the second had is the past participle of the verb to have".
It gives me a rough idea, I kind of understand it. But, can anyone give me a simpler rule or explanation?
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had had question
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isisalaska
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the second "had" is the past participle tense of the verb "to have" needed with the tense. Since this is a situation that ocurred in the past and ended (hopefully 
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)Isis Alaska
