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Fianancial benefit

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Fianancial benefit

by crackgmat007 » Tue Jul 28, 2009 8:36 am
OA to follow. Pls explain your answers. Tx
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Re: Fianancial benefit

by madhur_ahuja » Tue Jul 28, 2009 9:11 am
crackgmat007 wrote:OA to follow. Pls explain your answers. Tx
IMO D.

share of market remaining constant is assumption.

D attacks this.
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by Naruto » Tue Jul 28, 2009 9:43 am
IMO C

Because if C is true then the comparison and the factors considered are rendered moot.
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by krisraam » Tue Jul 28, 2009 10:41 am
IMO D.



Thanks
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by pandeyvineet24 » Tue Jul 28, 2009 5:29 pm
Yes D for me to.

Argument assumes that market share would remain constant. D clearly states that the new process would reduce the cost and increase the maeket share.
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by n_niaz » Sun Aug 02, 2009 11:27 am
IMO E
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by ssbhowmick » Mon Aug 03, 2009 5:50 pm
I think it is C..

If you compare the net gains in investing with that of not investing, then this will prove to be a disadvantage as intial investments might not yield any net gains in the beginning but later might yield enough benefit..
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by micheal_kr » Sun May 15, 2016 11:33 pm
I am leaning more towards C
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