BPO sector

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BPO sector

by papgust » Sat Dec 26, 2009 4:09 am
Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.

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by hrishi19884 » Sat Dec 26, 2009 4:19 am
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
C,D,E changes the meaning of the original sentence.

Left are A and B....."has never caused" changes the tense of the sentence.....so I would choose A.
I may be wrong, there is still a tie between A and B
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by papgust » Sat Dec 26, 2009 4:56 am
But A has a bad comparison. "..caused as much resentment overseas as now"

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by hrishi19884 » Sat Dec 26, 2009 5:26 am
papgust wrote:But A has a bad comparison. "..caused as much resentment overseas as now"
Yeah man... that too looks to be true.....I am really confused now between A and B. May be Ron or Stuart can help us
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by jackie86 » Mon Dec 28, 2009 12:13 pm
I don't think the comparison in A is correct. I will have to go with B.

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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Wed Dec 30, 2009 11:10 pm
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).
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by papgust » Wed Dec 30, 2009 11:28 pm
Thanks Stuart for your thoughts! The question is from a private coaching center in india.

The material was passed on by my friend. I would better stay away from that material from now on :)

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by ramesk_krish » Thu Dec 31, 2009 12:10 am
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.

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by Testluv » Thu Dec 31, 2009 12:57 am
ramesk_krish wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.
We use "had" when describing an event that is no longer occuring, an event that occured before some other event in the past. (This is called the "past perfect tense"). For example: "The governor's approval ratings HAD been high until the corruption scandal". Here, the governor's high approval ratings is the event that occured before some other event (corruption scandal) in the past.

In contrast, we use "has" when talking about any unspecified time in the past. (This is called the "present perfect tense"). Here, the speaker's intended meaning is that at no time in the past has BPO caused as much resentment as it is now. Thus, we need "has" and not "had".
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by sreak1089 » Thu Dec 31, 2009 4:52 am
Hi Testluv,

If I understand correctly, "had" is past perfect tense which needs to be used when we need to emphasize an action that has occured earlier with reference to another action in the past right?
Testluv wrote:
ramesk_krish wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.
We use "had" when describing an event that is no longer occuring, an event that occured before some other event in the past. (This is called the "past perfect tense"). For example: "The governor's approval ratings HAD been high until the corruption scandal". Here, the governor's high approval ratings is the event that occured before some other event (corruption scandal) in the past.

In contrast, we use "has" when talking about any unspecified time in the past. (This is called the "present perfect tense"). Here, the speaker's intended meaning is that at no time in the past has BPO caused as much resentment as it is now. Thus, we need "has" and not "had".

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by sreak1089 » Thu Dec 31, 2009 4:55 am
Let us say if Original sentence had A and the option B did not have "so" then which of these two would be considered a better sentence?

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by umaa » Thu Dec 31, 2009 7:04 am
sreak1089 wrote:Hi Testluv,

If I understand correctly, "had" is past perfect tense which needs to be used when we need to emphasize an action that has occured earlier with reference to another action in the past right?
Testluv wrote:
ramesk_krish wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.
We use "had" when describing an event that is no longer occuring, an event that occured before some other event in the past. (This is called the "past perfect tense"). For example: "The governor's approval ratings HAD been high until the corruption scandal". Here, the governor's high approval ratings is the event that occured before some other event (corruption scandal) in the past.

In contrast, we use "has" when talking about any unspecified time in the past. (This is called the "present perfect tense"). Here, the speaker's intended meaning is that at no time in the past has BPO caused as much resentment as it is now. Thus, we need "has" and not "had".
Answer choice A already has BEFORE. When we have "before" in a sentence, we don't need to use HAD for past action.

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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Thu Dec 31, 2009 1:59 pm
umaa wrote:
Answer choice A already has BEFORE. When we have "before" in a sentence, we don't need to use HAD for past action.

Source: MGMAT SC
Seriously, no need to quote 100 lines of text that are irrelevant to the point you're making!

This rule is not necessarily true, i.e. it is not really a grammar rule at all. Here's a counterexample:

Although the company had already declared bankruptcy before it bought the equipment, it was still given 30 days to pay.
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