reading comprehension query

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reading comprehension query

by pkedia004 » Fri Apr 28, 2017 4:17 am
In the year 1898, the United States made its earliest plunge into imperialism.For the first time, the nation secured overseas lands, dominions too thickly populated to be adapted for the purposes of colonization.
By earlier conquests and purchases such as those of Louisiana, Florida, Texas, California, and New Mexico, the United States had secured relatively empty territories, which a flow of emigrants from the Eastern States of the US could rapidly Americanize.But in Puerto Rico, the Philippines and Hawaii, there was never a serious attempt to colonize on the part of the American citizens.
The reasons behind these conquests were similar to the ones that led to the European partition of Africa in the 19th century.

The year 1898 indeed represented a strong shift in the foreign policy.

Even though in the years after the Civil War (1861-1865), Denmark offered to sell St. Thomas and St. Johns cheaply, the United States refused to purchase them, and declined to annex San Domingo or to entertain Sweden's proposal to purchase its West Indian territory.
In 1893, instead of annexing Hawaii, the US attempted to bolster up the sovereignty of the native Queen.
Then suddenly Puerto Rico, the Philippines and Guam were annexed; Hawaii was incorporated and Samoa was divided with Germany.
America finally abandoned isolationism for good.
In part this change in foreign policy was due to military considerations.
The possession of Hawaii, Panama and Guantanamo in Cuba was obviously necessary for the defense of America's coasts.
Just as the Monroe Doctrine was intended to protect the country from the approach of great military powers, so these new acquisitions were desired to pre-empt close-lying bases, from which fleets in enemy possession could assail the country's trade or cut off its communication.
Such strategic considerations, however, do not explain the whole of our new imperialistic policy.
Economic motives played a greater part. As a result of the Industrial Revolution, merchants had begun to think in terms of foreign markets and the US financiers in terms of foreign investments.
The growing population had made increasing demands upon food products, leaving less to be exported, and at the same time exports of manufactures had increased.
Many citizens believed that the United States could not afford to adhere to a policy of isolation while other nations were reaching out for the command of new markets.




I have a doubt in this rc
1>For the first time, the nation secured overseas lands, dominions too thickly populated to be adapted for the purposes of colonization
In this sentence i didnt got the meaning of dominions and after that

2>HERE why does partition mean here "that europe captured africa"
The reasons behind these conquests were similar to the ones that led to the European partition of Africa in the 19th century.

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by ceilidh.erickson » Wed May 03, 2017 11:56 am
1>For the first time, the nation secured overseas lands, dominions too thickly populated to be adapted for the purposes of colonization
In this sentence i didnt got the meaning of dominions and after that
It's a somewhat awkward sentence, I agree. Here, "dominions" is an appositive modifying "lands" (it's just a fancy word for "lands"). However, I don't think that the appositive was properly used here.

The intended meaning: this was the first time that the US secured overseas lands THAT WERE thickly populated (though the had seized other lands before).

We should use an ESSENTIAL noun modifier, not a non-essential one. It would be wrong to say: This was the first time that the US secured overseas lands, which were thickly populated... (this implies that it was the first time they seized land of any kind, and that land happened to be thickly populated).

So I'm with you on this one!
2>HERE why does partition mean here "that europe captured africa"
The reasons behind these conquests were similar to the ones that led to the European partition of Africa in the 19th century.
"Partition" means "to divide up." This passage assumes that the reader has knowledge of world history (in English). The word "partition" is often synonymous with "several countries dividing up someone else's land into pieces in order to colonize." The GMAT will rarely use terminology like this that assumes particular subject knowledge.

What is the source of this passage? Please always post your sources!
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EdM in Mind, Brain, and Education
Harvard Graduate School of Education

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by ceilidh.erickson » Sun Jun 18, 2017 10:58 am
pkedia004, following up - what is the source of this question?
Ceilidh Erickson
EdM in Mind, Brain, and Education
Harvard Graduate School of Education