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Verbal 2017 - CR # 158: Most scholars agree that King Alfred

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RBBmba@2014 Legendary Member Default Avatar
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Verbal 2017 - CR # 158: Most scholars agree that King Alfred

Post Tue Jun 27, 2017 4:24 am
Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally translated a number of Latin texts into Old English. One historian contends that Alfred also personally penned his own law code, arguing that the numerous differences between the language of the law code and Alfred's translation of Latin texts are overweighted by the even more numerous similarities. Linguistic similarities, however, are what one expects in texts from the same language, the same time, and the same region. Apart from Alfred's surviving trasnlation and law code, there are only two other extant works from the same dialect and milieu, so it is risky to assume here that linguistic similarities point to common authorship.

The passage above proceeds by :

(A) Providing examples that underscore another argument's conclusion.
(B) questioning the plausibility of an assumption on which another argument depends.
(C) showing that a principle if generally applied would have anomalous consequences.
(D) showing that the premises of another argument are mutually inconsistent.
(E) using argument by analogy to undermine a principle implicit in another argument.


OA: B

@Verbal Experts: Can you please share your detail analysis for this CR ? Also, please share your thoughts on the reasons to eliminate Option C & E ?



Last edited by RBBmba@2014 on Thu Aug 03, 2017 9:33 pm; edited 1 time in total

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Post Mon Jul 03, 2017 10:59 am
Quote:
Why can't we say that what one historian contends/concludes is an ANOMALOUS CONSEQUENCE because it deviates from the standard norm that Linguistic similarities are what one expects in texts from the same language, the same time, and the same region
Even if we argue that the historian's belief is anomalous, rather than, say, misguided, or just unfounded, (why would it be anomalous to believe the same author composed two different texts?) it certainly isn't a consequence of the application of the principle that all texts of a given period have features in common. In other words, the notion that texts of a given time period have similar linguistic features didn't lead to the historian's belief that King Alfred penned his own law code. The historian seems to have arrived at this conclusion on his own, and this conclusion is then undermined by the notion that all works of a given period will have common elements, as the linguistic similarity appears to be the only evidence he has for his contention.

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Post Mon Jul 03, 2017 11:01 am
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I think, another reason to eliminate E could be that there is NO implicit principle in the Historian's argument. The principle/inference Historian makes -- two linguistic works are done by same author because of more similarities than differences between them -- is EXPLICIT.
Seems logical to me.

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Post Mon Jul 03, 2017 10:59 am
Quote:
Why can't we say that what one historian contends/concludes is an ANOMALOUS CONSEQUENCE because it deviates from the standard norm that Linguistic similarities are what one expects in texts from the same language, the same time, and the same region
Even if we argue that the historian's belief is anomalous, rather than, say, misguided, or just unfounded, (why would it be anomalous to believe the same author composed two different texts?) it certainly isn't a consequence of the application of the principle that all texts of a given period have features in common. In other words, the notion that texts of a given time period have similar linguistic features didn't lead to the historian's belief that King Alfred penned his own law code. The historian seems to have arrived at this conclusion on his own, and this conclusion is then undermined by the notion that all works of a given period will have common elements, as the linguistic similarity appears to be the only evidence he has for his contention.

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Post Mon Jul 03, 2017 11:01 am
Quote:
I think, another reason to eliminate E could be that there is NO implicit principle in the Historian's argument. The principle/inference Historian makes -- two linguistic works are done by same author because of more similarities than differences between them -- is EXPLICIT.
Seems logical to me.

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Post Mon Jul 03, 2017 11:02 am
RBBmba@2014 wrote:
RBBmba@2014 wrote:
Also, I think, we can promptly be sure of the Option B as the OA because of this phrase in the CONCLUSION of the PASSAGE -- "so it is risky to assume". Isn't so ?
Dave - (just wanna reconfirm that I understood your reply properly) the above approach to pin the OA is correct. Right ?
Correct.

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RBBmba@2014 Legendary Member Default Avatar
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Post Sat Jul 01, 2017 3:58 am
RBBmba@2014 wrote:
Also, I think, we can promptly be sure of the Option B as the OA because of this phrase in the CONCLUSION of the PASSAGE -- "so it is risky to assume". Isn't so ?
Dave - (just wanna reconfirm that I understood your reply properly) the above approach to pin the OA is correct. Right ?

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Post Sat Jul 01, 2017 3:54 am
DavidG@VeritasPrep wrote:
C: showing that a principle if generally applied would have anomalous consequences.
Anomalous means "deviating from the norm." There's no anomalous consequences here. Just a problematic assumption that leads to a questionable conclusion.
Why can't we say that what one historian contends/concludes is an ANOMALOUS CONSEQUENCE because it deviates from the standard norm that Linguistic similarities are what one expects in texts from the same language, the same time, and the same region

DavidG@VeritasPrep wrote:
E: using argument by analogy to undermine a principle implicit in another argument. There's no analogy here. The language analysis isn't compared to some other similar phenomenon.
I think, another reason to eliminate E could be that there is NO implicit principle in the Historian's argument. The principle/inference Historian makes -- two linguistic works are done by same author because of more similarities than differences between them -- is EXPLICIT.

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Post Thu Jun 29, 2017 7:38 am
RBBmba@2014 wrote:
Hi Dave,
I get you here.
Also, I think, we can promptly be sure of the Option B as the OA because of this phrase in the CONCLUSION of the PASSAGE -- "so it is risky to assume". Isn't so ?

However, could you please share your thoughts on the EXACT reasons to eliminate Option C & E ? (it seems to me they're close to the LOGIC of the PASSAGE)
Sure.

C: showing that a principle if generally applied would have anomalous consequences.
Anomalous means "deviating from the norm." There's no anomalous consequences here. Just a problematic assumption that leads to a questionable conclusion.

E: using argument by analogy to undermine a principle implicit in another argument. There's no analogy here. The language analysis isn't compared to some other similar phenomenon.

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