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Hi polter,

Pls go th. http://www.beatthegmat.com/fast-way-to-do-this-t110788.html#467098

Regards,
Shantanu

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the question says m +n =0 (given m!= -n)
to find if (m-n)/(m+n)> 1?

this can be reduced to (m-n)/(m+n) -1 >0
i.e. -2n/(m+n)>0


option1: n<0
we cannot say anything about the sign of m+n. hence, above expression can be + as well as -
hence, insufficient.


option1: m>0
we cannot say anything about the sign of above expression. hence, above expression can be + as well as -
hence, insufficient.


combine both : n<0 and m>0
the above expression wil be less than zero only if abs(n)> abs(m), which is not given.


hence, both together are insufficient.
Answer, E

Hope it Helps

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Hi shantanu86/ spartacus1412, thank you for your suggestions.

My confusion was with this: can this expression not be reduced as
(m-n)/(m+n)> 1
=> (m-n)> (m+n)
=> -n > n
=> 0 > 2n
=> 0 > n

Since (1) clearly defines this. Hence A