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QG11 Question: 144 DS

This topic has 1 member reply
nuku888 Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts Default Avatar
Joined
19 Apr 2007
Posted:
5 messages

QG11 Question: 144 DS

Post Mon Apr 30, 2007 2:26 pm
Elapsed Time: 00:00
  • Lap #[LAPCOUNT] ([LAPTIME])
    For the second statment:

    I multiplied both sides by 10 hence I got 1^n-1 > 1 and because one is equivilant to 1^1 I dropped the 1's and was left with:

    n-1 > 1 --> n > 2 which is the same as the first statement

    Is this the right way of doing it or was it a fluke? can I do this question this way instead of like the back of the book by trying 1 and 2 first.

    Need free GMAT or MBA advice from an expert? Register for Beat The GMAT now and post your question in these forums!
    f2001290 Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
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    Post Wed May 02, 2007 4:09 am
    I can't see the question. Could you please post it again?

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