Announcement, 11/3/08: Welcome Test Prep New York experts!

probability question


 
Post new topic   Reply to topic    Beat The GMAT Forum Index -> GMAT Math -> Problem Solving
View previous topic :: View next topic  
Author Message
raunekk
GMAT Destroyer!


Joined: 16 Apr 2008
Posts: 801

Thanks given: 10
Thanked 33 times in 33 posts


Target GMAT Score: 740

PostPosted: Thu Aug 21, 2008 7:31 am    Post subject: probability question Reply with quote

Q)A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats.What is the probability of getting exactly 3 red hats or exactly 3 blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next?

(a)1/8
(b)1/4
(c)1/2
(d)3/8
(e)7/12
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message Send e-mail
bradley281
Just gettin' started!


Joined: 27 May 2008
Posts: 17

Thanks given: 1
Thanked 1 times in 1 posts

Location: arizona
Test Date: 10/11/2008
Target GMAT Score: 660

PostPosted: Thu Aug 21, 2008 7:44 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

each time you draw you have 1/2 of a chance of drawing red or blue. since you are returning the hats to the drawer each draw gives you 1/2 of a chance. therefore my guess is.

1/2 x 3 = 1/8

please let me know the answer
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message
sudhir3127
Moderator


Joined: 07 Jul 2008
Posts: 724

Thanks given: 0
Thanked 56 times in 52 posts

Location: INDIA
Target GMAT Score: 700+

PostPosted: Thu Aug 21, 2008 8:14 am    Post subject: Re: probability question Reply with quote

raunekk wrote:
Q)A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats.What is the probability of getting exactly 3 red hats or exactly 3 blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next?

(a)1/8
(b)1/4
(c)1/2
(d)3/8
(e)7/12


i go for C 1/2

probability of taking a particular hat is 1/2 ( 4/8)

Now assume we have 2 take 3 blues and 1 red

P(BBBR) = (1/2)^4
P(BBRB) = (1/2)^4
P(BRBB) = (1/2)^4
P(RBBB) = (1/2)^4
total = 4 * (1/2)^4

similarly with red

thus the total is 2*4*1/16 = 8/16 = 1/2

hope its clear..
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message
raunekk
GMAT Destroyer!


Joined: 16 Apr 2008
Posts: 801

Thanks given: 10
Thanked 33 times in 33 posts


Target GMAT Score: 740

PostPosted: Thu Aug 21, 2008 8:29 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

hi sudhir3127,

answer is C 1/2

thanks a lot.Tat made things quite clear...

But is it possible to solve this sum by taking the number of ways in which red or blue hats can be selected..i mean..

I did it d following way...can u tell me where i went wrong..

number of ways selecting exactly 3 red or blue balls - 4C3

3 hats are selected so 1 mre hat can be selected in 4 ways

Total number of ways in selectin 4 balls is 8C4 ways..

Thus 4C3*4/8C4.

I know its messed up..But just curious whether we can solve it this ways..

thanks a lot ...
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message Send e-mail
canuckclint
Really wants to Beat The GMAT!


Joined: 26 Aug 2008
Posts: 117

Thanks given: 7
Thanked 0 times in 0 posts

Location: Canada
Target GMAT Score: 600+

PostPosted: Thu Sep 04, 2008 10:15 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

raunekk wrote:

Total number of ways in selectin 4 balls is 8C4 ways..


Your mistake is here. It is 2^4 = 16 for 4 positions
But if you are trying to solve 4 balls you might as well do it the previous way.
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message Visit poster's website
Stuart Kovinsky
GMAT Instructor


Joined: 08 Jan 2008
Posts: 1225

Thanks given: 0
Thanked 203 times in 185 posts

Location: Toronto
GMAT Score: 800

PostPosted: Thu Sep 04, 2008 10:34 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Any time there's a 50/50 chance of something happening, you really have a coin flip question in disguise. The question could have been:

If you flip a fair coin 4 times, what's the probability of getting exactly 3 heads or exactly 3 tails?

There are numerous ways to solve coin flip questions. One of the quickest is to apply the coin flip formula.

The probability of getting exactly k results out of n flips is:

nCk/2^n

Applying the formula to this question, we get:

4C3/2^4 = 4/16 = 1/4

Since we want exactly 3 heads OR exactly 3 tails, we need to double our answer, getting 1/2.

As quick as it was to apply the formula, there's an even BETTER way to solve coin flip questions, involving memorizing a few numbers.

Here are the numbers to remember:

1 3 3 1
1 4 6 4 1
1 5 10 10 5 1

Some of you may recognize those patters as rows of numbers from Pascal's Triangle. The Triangle has a number of uses, but for GMAT purposes its most useful application is to coin flip questions.

The first row applies to 3 flip questions, the second to 4 flip questions and the third to 5 flip questions.

Let's start with the first row, 1 3 3 1, and see how it helps.

"A fair coin is flipped 3 times. What's the probability of getting exactly 2 heads?"

The entries in the row represent the different ways to get 0, 1, 2 and 3 results, respectively. In our question, we want 2 heads, so we go to the 3rd entry in the row, "3".

To find the total number of possibilities, add up the row... 1+3+3+1 = 8

So, our answer is 3/8.

Let's look at a much more complicated question:

"A fair coin is flipped 5 times. What's the probability of getting at least 2 heads?"

If we want at least 2 heads, we want 2 heads, 3 heads, 4 heads OR 5 heads. Pretty much whenever we see "OR" in probability, we add the individual probabilities.

Looking at the 5 flip row, we have 1 5 10 10 5 1. For 2H, 3H, 4H and 5H we add up the 3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th entries: 10+10+5+1=26.

Summing the whole row, we get 32.

So, the chance of getting at least 2 heads out of 5 flips is 26/32 = 13/16.

_________________
Stuart Kovinsky, B.A. LL.B.
Academic Co-ordinator
Kaplan Test Prep & Admissions
Toronto Office
1-800-KAP-TEST

Learn more about me
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message Send e-mail Visit poster's website
Thanked by: mals24, msvmuthu
mals24
GMAT Destroyer!


Joined: 22 Jul 2008
Posts: 364

Thanks given: 18
Thanked 19 times in 18 posts

Location: Dubai

PostPosted: Fri Sep 05, 2008 3:14 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Hey Stuart thanks for the great tip
It does make 'flip the coin' questions more simpler and fun now Smile
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message
Stockmoose16
GMAT Destroyer!


Joined: 04 Aug 2008
Posts: 330

Thanks given: 3
Thanked 0 times in 0 posts


PostPosted: Wed Sep 17, 2008 12:10 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
Any time there's a 50/50 chance of something happening, you really have a coin flip question in disguise. The question could have been:

If you flip a fair coin 4 times, what's the probability of getting exactly 3 heads or exactly 3 tails?

There are numerous ways to solve coin flip questions. One of the quickest is to apply the coin flip formula.

The probability of getting exactly k results out of n flips is:

nCk/2^n

Applying the formula to this question, we get:

4C3/2^4 = 4/16 = 1/4

Since we want exactly 3 heads OR exactly 3 tails, we need to double our answer, getting 1/2.



Stuart,

I don't understand your logic here. In the numerator, don't you have to account for the fourth flip? Shouldn't the numerator be 4C3* 4C1?

Look at the following example:

Three letters are randomly chosen from the word TUESDAY. How many possible selections are there? How many of these selections have:

(b) exactly 2 vowels?


No. of selections = 3C2* 4C1= 12


How come for the coin flip question, you don't have to do:

4C3 * 4C1 for the numerator?
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message
Stuart Kovinsky
GMAT Instructor


Joined: 08 Jan 2008
Posts: 1225

Thanks given: 0
Thanked 203 times in 185 posts

Location: Toronto
GMAT Score: 800

PostPosted: Wed Sep 17, 2008 12:36 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Stockmoose16 wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
Any time there's a 50/50 chance of something happening, you really have a coin flip question in disguise. The question could have been:

If you flip a fair coin 4 times, what's the probability of getting exactly 3 heads or exactly 3 tails?

There are numerous ways to solve coin flip questions. One of the quickest is to apply the coin flip formula.

The probability of getting exactly k results out of n flips is:

nCk/2^n

Applying the formula to this question, we get:

4C3/2^4 = 4/16 = 1/4

Since we want exactly 3 heads OR exactly 3 tails, we need to double our answer, getting 1/2.



Stuart,

I don't understand your logic here. In the numerator, don't you have to account for the fourth flip? Shouldn't the numerator be 4C3* 4C1?

Look at the following example:

Three letters are randomly chosen from the word TUESDAY. How many possible selections are there? How many of these selections have:

(b) exactly 2 vowels?


No. of selections = 3C2* 4C1= 12


How come for the coin flip question, you don't have to do:

4C3 * 4C1 for the numerator?


4C3 in the coin flip question does account for all 4 flips - we want exactly 3 of them to be heads, by default the other will be tails.

In the "TUESDAY" question, the "3" in 3C2 doesn't relate to the number of letters we're choosing, it relates to the number of vowels available (we have 3 vowels total, we're choosing 2 of them); similarly, the "4" in 4C1 relates to the number of consonants.

So, we have 3C2*4C1 because we're choosing 2 vowels out of 3 and 1 consonant out of 4.

In our example, we have 4C3 because we're choosing 3 results out of 4 flips - we're not choosing 3 different "heads" out of a total of 4 available heads.

_________________
Stuart Kovinsky, B.A. LL.B.
Academic Co-ordinator
Kaplan Test Prep & Admissions
Toronto Office
1-800-KAP-TEST

Learn more about me
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message Send e-mail Visit poster's website
Stockmoose16
GMAT Destroyer!


Joined: 04 Aug 2008
Posts: 330

Thanks given: 3
Thanked 0 times in 0 posts


PostPosted: Wed Sep 17, 2008 12:39 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Quote:
4C3 in the coin flip question does account for all 4 flips - we want exactly 3 of them to be heads, by default the other will be tails.

In the "TUESDAY" question, the "3" in 3C2 doesn't relate to the number of letters we're choosing, it relates to the number of vowels available (we have 3 vowels total, we're choosing 2 of them); similarly, the "4" in 4C1 relates to the number of consonants.

So, we have 3C2*4C1 because we're choosing 2 vowels out of 3 and 1 consonant out of 4.

In our example, we have 4C3 because we're choosing 3 results out of 4 flips - we're not choosing 3 different "heads" out of a total of 4 available heads.


Got it. Thanks for the explanation. It's very helpful.
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message
Stockmoose16
GMAT Destroyer!


Joined: 04 Aug 2008
Posts: 330

Thanks given: 3
Thanked 0 times in 0 posts


PostPosted: Wed Sep 17, 2008 12:55 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
Stockmoose16 wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
Any time there's a 50/50 chance of something happening, you really have a coin flip question in disguise. The question could have been:

If you flip a fair coin 4 times, what's the probability of getting exactly 3 heads or exactly 3 tails?

There are numerous ways to solve coin flip questions. One of the quickest is to apply the coin flip formula.

The probability of getting exactly k results out of n flips is:

nCk/2^n

Applying the formula to this question, we get:

4C3/2^4 = 4/16 = 1/4

Since we want exactly 3 heads OR exactly 3 tails, we need to double our answer, getting 1/2.



Stuart,

I don't understand your logic here. In the numerator, don't you have to account for the fourth flip? Shouldn't the numerator be 4C3* 4C1?

Look at the following example:

Three letters are randomly chosen from the word TUESDAY. How many possible selections are there? How many of these selections have:

(b) exactly 2 vowels?


No. of selections = 3C2* 4C1= 12


How come for the coin flip question, you don't have to do:

4C3 * 4C1 for the numerator?


4C3 in the coin flip question does account for all 4 flips - we want exactly 3 of them to be heads, by default the other will be tails.

In the "TUESDAY" question, the "3" in 3C2 doesn't relate to the number of letters we're choosing, it relates to the number of vowels available (we have 3 vowels total, we're choosing 2 of them); similarly, the "4" in 4C1 relates to the number of consonants.

So, we have 3C2*4C1 because we're choosing 2 vowels out of 3 and 1 consonant out of 4.

In our example, we have 4C3 because we're choosing 3 results out of 4 flips - we're not choosing 3 different "heads" out of a total of 4 available heads.


Stuart,

I actually have one follow-up question. In regards to this question:

A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats. What is the probability of getting exactly three red hats or exactly three blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next?

(a) 1/8
(b) ¼
(c) ½
(d) 3/8
(e) 7/12

I understand you treat this like a coin flip, but if you didn't recognize that from the beginning, why wouldn't this be exactly like the vowel/consonant question I was referred to above. Meaning, you should multiply the ways of getting exactly 3 red hats times the probability of getting a blue one on the fourth choice? Then multiply by two to account for the "or."

So the answer should be:

4C3*4/2^4 +4C3*4/2^4 =2 ... which obviously makes no sense. Why is this question different from the vowel one above?
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message
Stuart Kovinsky
GMAT Instructor


Joined: 08 Jan 2008
Posts: 1225

Thanks given: 0
Thanked 203 times in 185 posts

Location: Toronto
GMAT Score: 800

PostPosted: Wed Sep 17, 2008 1:38 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Stockmoose16 wrote:
I actually have one follow-up question. In regards to this question:

A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats. What is the probability of getting exactly three red hats or exactly three blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next?

(a) 1/8
(b) ¼
(c) ½
(d) 3/8
(e) 7/12

I understand you treat this like a coin flip, but if you didn't recognize that from the beginning, why wouldn't this be exactly like the vowel/consonant question I was referred to above. Meaning, you should multiply the ways of getting exactly 3 red hats times the probability of getting a blue one on the fourth choice? Then multiply by two to account for the "or."

So the answer should be:

4C3*4/2^4 +4C3*4/2^4 =2 ... which obviously makes no sense. Why is this question different from the vowel one above?


You're misunderstanding how to apply the combinations formula. To be honest, I have no clue how you derived the expression above.

In the hat question, we're making 4 selections. The chance of getting a red hat on any specific draw is 1/2. The probability of any 4 specific selections is:

1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16

For our particular question, we want either exactly 3R or 3B.

For 3R, we want 3 of our 4 selections to be red, so that's 4C3.

For 3B, we want 3 of our 4 selections to be blue, so that's 4C3.

Since we want 3R or 3B, we add 4C3 + 4C3 = 4 + 4 = 8.

So: # of desired outcomes = 8
Total # of possibilities = 16

Prob = 8/16 = 1/2

By muliplying 4C3 * 4, you're double counting (actually, you're squaring the number of possibilities), since 4C3 already takes into account the "missing" 1.

_________________
Stuart Kovinsky, B.A. LL.B.
Academic Co-ordinator
Kaplan Test Prep & Admissions
Toronto Office
1-800-KAP-TEST

Learn more about me
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message Send e-mail Visit poster's website
cramya
GMAT Destroyer!


Joined: 28 Aug 2008
Posts: 806

Thanks given: 1
Thanked 50 times in 49 posts


PostPosted: Wed Sep 17, 2008 1:56 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Staurt thanks you so much for sharing the Pascal traingles approach with us.
Here my small addition to that:

If you cant memorize it gies like this

1 3 3 1
1 4 6 4 1

To get to 1 4 6 4 1 all we have to do is carry over the left side1 as is and keep adding the 2 adjacent terms and then again carry the right 1

1(carrying the left 1 as is) 4(left side 1+ first3) 6(left side3 added to right side 3) 4(right side 3 added to right side 1) 1(carrying the right 1 as is)

The same applies in getting the next row of numbers
When I explain this it may look complicated but its very simple to do
Back to top


View user's profile Send private message
Display posts from previous:   
Post new topic   Reply to topic    Beat The GMAT Forum Index -> GMAT Math -> Problem Solving All times are GMT - 8 Hours
Page 1 of 1

 
Jump to:  
You cannot post new topics in this forum
You cannot reply to topics in this forum
You cannot edit your posts in this forum
You cannot delete your posts in this forum
You cannot vote in polls in this forum
You cannot attach files in this forum
You cannot download files in this forum



"GMAT" and other GMAC™ trademarks are registered trademarks of the Graduate Management Admission Council™. The Graduate Management Admission Council™ does not endorse, nor is it affiliated in any way with the owner or any content on this website. The opinions expressed here are solely those of the author or those of the members of this website. Copyright © 2008 BTG Test Prep, LLC. Powered by phpBB © 2001, 2005 phpBB Group.