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primary prupose of the passage

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wilderness Really wants to Beat The GMAT! Default Avatar
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primary prupose of the passage Post Tue Jul 08, 2008 9:27 am
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    For the following paragarph, i find D to be a better choice for the "primary prupose of the passage". OA is E !! Do you agree with me.

    Question is taken from
    http://www.testpreppractice.net/GMAT/Free-GMAT-Practice-Tests/Reading-Comprehension-1.aspx


    Most economists in the United states seem captivated by spell of the free market. Consequently, nothing seems good ornormal that does not accord with the requirements of the free market.

    A price that is determined by the seller or for that matter, established by anyone other than the aggregate of consumers seems pernicious, Accordingly, it requires a major act of will to think of price - fixing (the determination of prices by the seller) as both "normal" and having a valuable economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal in all industrialized societies because the industrial system itself provides, as an effortless consequence of its own development, the price-fixing that requires, Modern industrial planning requires and rewards great size. Hence a comparatively small number of large firms will be competing for the same group of consumers. That each large firm will act with consideration of its own needs and thus avoid selling its products for more than its competitors charge is commonly recognized by advocates of free-markets economic theories. But each large firms will also act with full consideration of the needs that it has in common with the other large firms competing for the same customers. Each large firm will thus avoid significant price cutting, because price cutting would be prejudicial to the common interest in a stable demand for products. Most economists do not see price-fixing when it occurs because they expect it to be brought about by a number of explicit agreements among large firms; it is not.

    More over those economists who argue that allowing the free market to operate without interference is the most efficient method of establishing prices have not considered the economies of non socialist countries other than the United States. These economies employ intentional price-fixing usually in an overt fashion. Formal price fixing by cartel and informal price fixing by agreements covering the members of an industry are common place. Were there something peculiarly efficient about the free market and inefficient about price fixing, the countries that have avoided the first and used the second would have suffered drastically in their economic development. There is no indication that they have.

    Socialist industry also works within a frame work of controlled prices. In early 1970's, the soviet union began to give firms and industries some of the flexibility in adjusting prices that a more informal evolution has accorded the capitalist system. Economists in the United States have hailed the change as a return to the free market.But Soviet firms are no more subject to prices established by free market over which they exercise little influenced than are capitalist firms.
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    GMATDavid GMAT Instructor Default Avatar
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    Post Tue Jul 08, 2008 2:36 pm
    E is the better answer because D is over-stated. The author does not quite argue that prince fixing is "inevitable" or that it will occur in "any" industrialized society. A GMAT trick is to have a nearly correct answer choice that goes just a bit too far and then a very vague answer choice that seems to say at once nothing and everything. Answer choice E is not wrong in a particular way; it is just not as specific as you would like. D, in going too far, is wrong.

    raunekk GMAT Titan Default Avatar
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    Post Wed Jul 16, 2008 2:04 am
    exactly.. D's overstates it and uses some strong words...

    Also , passage does tell us about different economies in each of its paragraph..

    E is correct.

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