Is (x - 2)^2 > x^2?
(1) x^2 > x
(2) (1/x) > 0
Pls help : (x - 2)^2 > x^2
This topic has expert replies
GMAT/MBA Expert
- Brent@GMATPrepNow
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 16207
- Joined: Mon Dec 08, 2008 6:26 pm
- Location: Vancouver, BC
- Thanked: 5254 times
- Followed by:1268 members
- GMAT Score:770
Target question: Is (x - 2)² > x²?himu wrote:Is (x - 2)² > x²?
(1) x² > x
(2) (1/x) > 0
This is a great candidate for rephrasing the target question.
Aside: We have a free video with tips on rephrasing the target question: https://www.gmatprepnow.com/module/gmat- ... cy?id=1100
Take (x - 2)² > x² and expand the left side to get: x² - 4x + 4 > x²
Subtract x² from both sides to get: -4x + 4 > 0
Add 4x to both sides to get: 4 > 4x
Divide both sides by 4 to get: 1 > x
So, we can REPHRASE our target question....
REPHRASED target question: Is x < 1? [Is x less than 1?]
Statement 1: x² > x
First, since x² > x, we can conclude that x ≠0
So, we know that x² is POSITIVE
So, let's divide both sides of the inequality by x² to get: 1 > 1/x
This means that EITHER x < 0 OR x > 1
So there are two possible cases to consider.
case a: If x < 0, then it IS the case that x < 1
case b: If x > 1, then it is NOT the case that x < 1
Since we cannot answer the REPHRASED target question with certainty, statement 1 is NOT SUFFICIENT
Statement 2: (1/x) > 0
If 1 divided by x equals some POSITIVE value, we can conclude that x is POSITIVE
If x is POSITIVE, then x could be greater than 1, or x could be less than 1
Since we cannot answer the REPHRASED target question with certainty, statement 2 is NOT SUFFICIENT
Statements 1 and 2 combined
Statement 1 tells us that that EITHER x < 0 OR x > 1
Statement 2 tells us that x is POSITIVE
So, we can eliminate the possibility that x < 0
This means it MUST be the case that x > 1
So, we can conclude that x is NOT less than 1
Since we can answer the REPHRASED target question with certainty, the combined statements are SUFFICIENT
Answer = C
Cheers,
Brent
For even more information on rephrasing the target question, you can read this article I wrote for BTG: https://www.beatthegmat.com/mba/2014/06/ ... t-question
Last edited by Brent@GMATPrepNow on Sun Feb 08, 2015 9:59 am, edited 1 time in total.
GMAT/MBA Expert
- [email protected]
- Elite Legendary Member
- Posts: 10392
- Joined: Sun Jun 23, 2013 6:38 pm
- Location: Palo Alto, CA
- Thanked: 2867 times
- Followed by:511 members
- GMAT Score:800
Hi himu,
This question is perfect for TESTing VALUES:
We're asked if (x - 2)^2 is greater than x^2? This is a YES/NO question.
Fact 1: X^2 > X
If....
X = 2, then (0)^2 is NOT greater than 2^2 and the answer to the question is NO.
X = -1, then (-3)^2 IS greater than (-1)^2 and the answer to the question is YES.
Fact 1 is INSUFFICIENT
Fact 2: (1/X) > 0
This means that X MUST be POSITIVE. We can use our first TEST from Fact 1...
If....
X = 2, then (0)^2 is NOT greater than 2^2 and the answer to the question is NO.
X = 1/2 then (-1.5)^2 IS greater than (1/2)^2 and the answer to the question is YES.
Fact 2 is INSUFFICIENT
Combined, we know....
X is POSITIVE (from Fact 2)
X > 1 (knowing that X is POSITIVE and combining that with the inequality in Fact 1).
Since X > 1, the value of (X-2)^2 will ALWAYS be LESS than X^2. You can prove it rather easily:
If...
X = 1.1... (.9)^2 vs. (1.1)^2
X = 2..... 0^2 vs. 2^2
X = 5.... 3^2 vs. 5^2
Etc.
The second term is ALWAYS bigger, so the answer to the question is ALWAYS NO.
Combined, SUFFICIENT
Final Answer: C
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
This question is perfect for TESTing VALUES:
We're asked if (x - 2)^2 is greater than x^2? This is a YES/NO question.
Fact 1: X^2 > X
If....
X = 2, then (0)^2 is NOT greater than 2^2 and the answer to the question is NO.
X = -1, then (-3)^2 IS greater than (-1)^2 and the answer to the question is YES.
Fact 1 is INSUFFICIENT
Fact 2: (1/X) > 0
This means that X MUST be POSITIVE. We can use our first TEST from Fact 1...
If....
X = 2, then (0)^2 is NOT greater than 2^2 and the answer to the question is NO.
X = 1/2 then (-1.5)^2 IS greater than (1/2)^2 and the answer to the question is YES.
Fact 2 is INSUFFICIENT
Combined, we know....
X is POSITIVE (from Fact 2)
X > 1 (knowing that X is POSITIVE and combining that with the inequality in Fact 1).
Since X > 1, the value of (X-2)^2 will ALWAYS be LESS than X^2. You can prove it rather easily:
If...
X = 1.1... (.9)^2 vs. (1.1)^2
X = 2..... 0^2 vs. 2^2
X = 5.... 3^2 vs. 5^2
Etc.
The second term is ALWAYS bigger, so the answer to the question is ALWAYS NO.
Combined, SUFFICIENT
Final Answer: C
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
-
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 510
- Joined: Thu Aug 07, 2014 2:24 am
- Thanked: 3 times
- Followed by:5 members
Hi,
i am confused in statement 1 .
Statement 1 says x^2>x
Can we cancel out one x from the above?
x>1 ( can we do that)
Please suggest me.
Thanks
Shreyans
i am confused in statement 1 .
Statement 1 says x^2>x
Can we cancel out one x from the above?
x>1 ( can we do that)
Please suggest me.
Thanks
Shreyans
- DavidG@VeritasPrep
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 2663
- Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
- Location: Boston, MA
- Thanked: 1153 times
- Followed by:128 members
- GMAT Score:770
You need to be very careful when dividing by a variable. First, we can only divide by a variable if we know that variable doesn't equal 0. In this case, we're okay, because x^2 couldn't be greater than x if x were 0.
However, we don't know if x is positive or negative. If it's negative, the sign will flip when we divide both sides by x. If it's positive, it won't.
So if x >0 then x > 1;
but if x < 0, the sign would flip and x < 1. (But, of course, if x < 0 , we already know it's less than 1.) So x > 1 or x < 0.
However, we don't know if x is positive or negative. If it's negative, the sign will flip when we divide both sides by x. If it's positive, it won't.
So if x >0 then x > 1;
but if x < 0, the sign would flip and x < 1. (But, of course, if x < 0 , we already know it's less than 1.) So x > 1 or x < 0.
GMAT/MBA Expert
- [email protected]
- Elite Legendary Member
- Posts: 10392
- Joined: Sun Jun 23, 2013 6:38 pm
- Location: Palo Alto, CA
- Thanked: 2867 times
- Followed by:511 members
- GMAT Score:800
Hi j_shreyans,
You have to be very careful about "dividing out" a variable, since it usually means that you're removing some of the possible solutions.
Here, we're dealing with X^2 > X
LOTS of different values will fit this inequality, including:
1) ANYTHING > 1
2) ANY Negative
By dividing both sides by X, you're left with X > 1. Notice how you've now lost ALL of the negative solutions? That's why you can't divide both sides by X here.
The GMAT is going to test you on this concept (possibly several times and almost certainly in DS), so you have to be careful with your arithmetic. You can add or subtract variables away, but you have to be careful about multiplying or dividing them away.
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
You have to be very careful about "dividing out" a variable, since it usually means that you're removing some of the possible solutions.
Here, we're dealing with X^2 > X
LOTS of different values will fit this inequality, including:
1) ANYTHING > 1
2) ANY Negative
By dividing both sides by X, you're left with X > 1. Notice how you've now lost ALL of the negative solutions? That's why you can't divide both sides by X here.
The GMAT is going to test you on this concept (possibly several times and almost certainly in DS), so you have to be careful with your arithmetic. You can add or subtract variables away, but you have to be careful about multiplying or dividing them away.
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
- DavidG@VeritasPrep
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 2663
- Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
- Location: Boston, MA
- Thanked: 1153 times
- Followed by:128 members
- GMAT Score:770
We can also think about it algebraically. If x^2 > x, we can subtract x from both sides:
x^2 - x > 0
Now factor out an x to get
x(x - 1) > 0
Anytime you have a positive product, both elements of the product must be +, or they both must be -
If both x and (x - 1) are positive, then x > 1.
If both x and (x - 1) are negative, then x < 0.
x^2 - x > 0
Now factor out an x to get
x(x - 1) > 0
Anytime you have a positive product, both elements of the product must be +, or they both must be -
If both x and (x - 1) are positive, then x > 1.
If both x and (x - 1) are negative, then x < 0.
- utkalnayak
- Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
- Posts: 53
- Joined: Thu Dec 25, 2014 2:23 pm
- Thanked: 1 times
Shreyans,
In an inequality comparison we can not simply divide any variable without knowing whether it is positive or negative.
example (-5)^2 > -5 but dividing -5 both sides gives -5 > 1, which is not true. however X^2 is always positive, hence we can divide that on either side.
Regards,
Utkal
Never mind, just saw that the experts have already answered your query.
In an inequality comparison we can not simply divide any variable without knowing whether it is positive or negative.
example (-5)^2 > -5 but dividing -5 both sides gives -5 > 1, which is not true. however X^2 is always positive, hence we can divide that on either side.
Regards,
Utkal
Never mind, just saw that the experts have already answered your query.
Thanks,
Utkal
Utkal
-
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 510
- Joined: Thu Aug 07, 2014 2:24 am
- Thanked: 3 times
- Followed by:5 members
Hi All ,
Thanks for your reply.
One more thing need to be cleared.
Question is (x-2)^2>x^2
now i should rephrase the question.
x^2+4-4x>x^2
now subtract x^2 both side
so we left 4-4x^2>0
now add 4x both side
now we left with 4>4x
divide 4 both side
so the finally should be 1>x or x<1 right?
Please correct me if am wrong.
Thanks
Shreyans
Thanks for your reply.
One more thing need to be cleared.
Question is (x-2)^2>x^2
now i should rephrase the question.
x^2+4-4x>x^2
now subtract x^2 both side
so we left 4-4x^2>0
now add 4x both side
now we left with 4>4x
divide 4 both side
so the finally should be 1>x or x<1 right?
Please correct me if am wrong.
Thanks
Shreyans
GMAT/MBA Expert
- [email protected]
- Elite Legendary Member
- Posts: 10392
- Joined: Sun Jun 23, 2013 6:38 pm
- Location: Palo Alto, CA
- Thanked: 2867 times
- Followed by:511 members
- GMAT Score:800
Hi j_shreyans,
Yes, all of your math "steps" in rewriting the question are correct.
At it's simplest, the question is asking "is 1 > X?"
Keep in mind that this is still the QUESTION, it's not a fact.
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
Yes, all of your math "steps" in rewriting the question are correct.
At it's simplest, the question is asking "is 1 > X?"
Keep in mind that this is still the QUESTION, it's not a fact.
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
-
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 510
- Joined: Thu Aug 07, 2014 2:24 am
- Thanked: 3 times
- Followed by:5 members
Hi Rich ,
Thanks for your reply.
Target question is still x<1 right?
In Brent's solution after rephrasing the question the target question is x>1
Please advise experts.
Thanks,
Shreyans
Thanks for your reply.
Target question is still x<1 right?
In Brent's solution after rephrasing the question the target question is x>1
Please advise experts.
Thanks,
Shreyans
- GMATGuruNY
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 15539
- Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
- Location: New York, NY
- Thanked: 13060 times
- Followed by:1906 members
- GMAT Score:790
You are correct.j_shreyans wrote: so the finally should be 1>x or x<1 right?
In Brent's solution after rephrasing the question the target question is x>1
In his solution, Brent inadvertently flipped the inequality symbols in red:
The last three steps should read:Subtract x² from both sides to get: -4x + 4 > 0
Add 4x to both sides to get: 4 < 4x
Divide both sides by 4 to get: 1 < x
So, we can REPHRASE our target question....
REPHRASED target question: Is x > 1?
Add 4x to both sides to get: 4 > 4x
Divide both sides by 4 to get: 1 > x .
REPHRASED target question: Is x < 1?
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.
As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.
For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.
As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.
For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
GMAT/MBA Expert
- Brent@GMATPrepNow
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 16207
- Joined: Mon Dec 08, 2008 6:26 pm
- Location: Vancouver, BC
- Thanked: 5254 times
- Followed by:1268 members
- GMAT Score:770
Hi Shreyans,j_shreyans wrote:Hi Rich ,
Thanks for your reply.
Target question is still x<1 right?
In Brent's solution after rephrasing the question the target question is x>1
Please advise experts.
Thanks,
Shreyans
I didn't realize that I had incorrectly rephrased the target question as "Is x > 1?"
I've edited my response so that it's "Is x < 1?"
Sorry for the confusion.
Cheers,
Brent
-
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 2630
- Joined: Wed Sep 12, 2012 3:32 pm
- Location: East Bay all the way
- Thanked: 625 times
- Followed by:119 members
- GMAT Score:780
j_shreyans wrote:
so the finally should be 1>x or x<1 right?
It would look like this:
(x - 2)² > x²
x² - 4x + 4 > x²
-4x + 4 > 0
4 > 4x
1 > x
Since we limited ourselves to adding, subtracting, and dividing by a positive number, we don't have to flip the sign.
One other thing worth noting: if you know that x ≠0, you can safely divide by x², or x to any even power, since a nonzero x² is always positive.
For instance, if we have
x² > x³
We can divide the whole inequality by x², since it's positive, and get 1 > x (and x ≠0). Students often don't think of this, but it's useful on certain inequality problems.
-
- Legendary Member
- Posts: 510
- Joined: Thu Aug 07, 2014 2:24 am
- Thanked: 3 times
- Followed by:5 members