A surge in new home sales and a drop in weekly
unemployment claims suggest that the economy might
not be as weak as some analysts previously thought.
(A) claims suggest that the economy might not be
as weak as some analysts previously thought
(B) claims suggests that the economy might not
be so weak as some analysts have previously
thought
(C) claims suggest that the economy might not be
as weak as have been previously thought by
some analysts
(D) claims, suggesting about the economy that it
might not be so weak as previously thought by
some analysts
(E) claims, suggesting the economy might not be as
weak as previously thought to be by some
analysts
Here, I can eassily eliminate B,D,E, because the subject is plural and simple only "suggest" is required.
My doubt is why HAVE BEEN not required in option C.
Please advise me and correct me if am wrong...
Why have been is not required.
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Hi j_shreyans,
Answer C has a couple of problems:
1) The verb "have" does not match with the noun "the economy." "The economy....has" would be correct.
2) It's written in passive voice ("previously thought BY some analysts"). While passive language sometimes shows up in a correct answer, the correct answer on Test Day is far more likely to be written in active voice ("some analysts previously thought").
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
Answer C has a couple of problems:
1) The verb "have" does not match with the noun "the economy." "The economy....has" would be correct.
2) It's written in passive voice ("previously thought BY some analysts"). While passive language sometimes shows up in a correct answer, the correct answer on Test Day is far more likely to be written in active voice ("some analysts previously thought").
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
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1) The verb "have" does not match with the noun "the economy." "The economy....has" would be correct.
Hi Rich ,
Just a quick question, if option C has HAS instead of HAVE, then it would be correct?
Or the uses of present perfect tense wrong in this? If yes then why?
Please explain.
Thanks.
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No!if option C has HAS instead of HAVE, then it would be correct?
Present perfect tense is incorrect here.Or the uses of present perfect tense wrong in this?
No and the reason is contradiction/ contradictory set of words!If yes then why?
previously means no longer now: No continued effect upto present/ No continued action upto present whereas Present perfect tense means either continued effect or continued action upto present.
GMAT loves to use contradictions and redundacies in incorrect answer choices.
For non-native test takers, best way to master them is by mastering the skill of vertical scanning- Go relative!