OG - SC Question 1

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OG - SC Question 1

by Mission2012 » Wed Jul 10, 2013 7:06 am
Hi,
n a review of 2,000 studies of human behavior that date back to the 1940s,two Swiss psychologists, declaring that since most of the studies had failed to control for such variables as social class and family size, none could be taken seriously.

A.psychologists, declaring that since most of the studies had failed to control for such variables as social class and family size,
B.psychologists, declaring that most of the studies failed in not controlling for such variables like social class and family size,and
C.psychologists declared that since most of the studies, having failed to control for such variables as social class and family size,
D.psychologists declared that since most of the studies fail in controlling for such variables like social class and family size,
E. psychologists declared that since most of the studies had failed to control for variables such as social class and family size,
Can someone explain the difference between -

Failed to control X and failed to control for x from the context of this question.
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by faraz_jeddah » Wed Jul 10, 2013 12:20 pm
Is the OA E?

I think we can choose E because we are referring to a past action (failed control) which would require the past perfect "had"

So you wouldnt need to differentiate between Failed to control X and failed to control for x

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by [email protected] » Wed Jul 10, 2013 12:43 pm
Hi faraz_jeddah,

You could bypass the issue altogether by figuring out that the first verb should be "declared" and the style phrase "such as" is preferable to "like". These two rules are enough to get you to answer E.

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by lunarpower » Mon Jul 28, 2014 10:48 am
I received a private message about this thread.
You could bypass the issue altogether by figuring out that ...
Hm?

You don't even need to "bypass the issue". There's no issue in the first place.
"Control(ling) for..." is in every choice.
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by lunarpower » Mon Jul 28, 2014 10:50 am
In any case, for readers who might be wondering about this distinction out of pure curiosity, here's a brief explanation.

"¢Â If you control a variable, then you actually exert influence on that variable.
E.g.,
Smith's data are questionable because he did not adequately control the ambient temperature during his experiments.
-> Smith needed to DO something TO the temperature (= probably keep it constant). He didn't do an adequate job in this regard.

"¢Â If you control for a variable, then you're NOT exerting an influence on it, because you're unable, or else unwilling, to do so. Instead, you strategically choose data points to normalize or eliminate the effect of that variable.
E.g.,
People addicted to narcotics or opiates do not typically lead lives similar to those of non-addicts; as a result, it is often extremely difficult to control for such factors as diet, sleep, exercise, and risk aversion in studying the consequences of drug addiction.
-> To make a valid study of the consequences of drug addiction, we need to find drug addicts whose lives are (drug use notwithstanding) fundamentally similar to those of non-addicts. (E.g., if we compare drug addicts who eat a poor diet to non-addicts who eat a better diet, it's impossible to tell whether any observed differences are due to the drugs, the dietary differences, or both.) Finding such people is difficult, making it hard to perform valid studies.
The point here is that we DON'T "control" diet, sleep, exercise, and so on, most likely for ethical reasons. Instead, we try to control FOR these things--basically the next-best option.
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