1000 CR test1 no 16

magical cook · Posted: Sat Mar 24, 2007 6:51 pm Post subject: 1000 CR test1 no 16

Hi,

The answer is B) but I don't understand why B is right....cause in text it says the third party only affects on of the two major parties equally which contradicts the answer B) that says neither of two parties get one-half of votes. (I think it's possible because third party ONLY affect one party...)

In a political system with only two major parties, the entrance of a third-party candidate into an election race damages the chances of only one of the two major candidates. The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate. Since a third-party candidacy affects the two major candidates unequally, for reasons neither of them has any control over, the practice is unfair and should not be allowed.

If the factual information in the passage above is true, which of the following can be most reliably inferred from it?

(A) If the political platform of the third party is a compromise position between that of the two major parties, the third party will draw its voters equally from the two major parties.
(B) If, before the emergence of a third party, voters were divided equally between the two major parties, neither of the major parties is likely to capture much more than one-half of the vote.
(C) A third-party candidate will not capture the votes of new voters who have never voted for candidates of either of the two major parties.
(D) The political stance of a third party will be more radical than that of either of the two major parties.
(E) The founders of a third party are likely to be a coalition consisting of former leaders of the two major parties.

rajesh_ctm · Posted: Sun Mar 25, 2007 10:56 am Post subject:

In a political system with only two major parties, the entrance of a third-party candidate into an election race damages the chances of only one of the two major candidates.

As per B, the two parties share 50%-50% candidates and a third party enters. The third party can damage the chances of only one party. So it can take some share from one party. But it does not increase the share of the other party. So none of these parties will get more than 50%. This can be reliably inferred from the passage. Where's the contradiction?