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dferm GMAT Destroyer!
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Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 8:03 am Post subject: GMAT Prep ?? (Kth term) |
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For every integer k from 1 to 10, inclusive, the kth term of a certain sequence is given by (-1)^k+1 (1/2^k). If T is the sum of the first 10 terms in the sequence, then T is
A. greater than 2
B. between 1 and 2
C. between 1/2 and 1
D. between 1/4 and 1/2
E. less than 1/4
Please help..thanks... |
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bia Rising GMAT Star
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Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 8:53 am Post subject: |
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C , right? _________________ Bia |
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dferm GMAT Destroyer!
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Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 9:24 am Post subject: |
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| NO D.. |
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anju Rising GMAT Star
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Posted: Fri May 09, 2008 12:48 pm Post subject: |
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Hi,
I belive we will need to solve this equation for each value of K and then add the sum for calculating T. That is how the answer lies between .25 and .5 which is 1/4 and 1/2. I dunno any other faster method to solve this... Any more help will be appreciated.
Thanks. |
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ptgbeauregard Rising GMAT Star
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Location: Bethesda, MD Test Date: 6/16/08 Target GMAT Score: 750
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Posted: Sat May 10, 2008 1:36 pm Post subject: |
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that question is either incredibly poorly worded or the answer is wrong.
the way it reads, we are looking for the sum of k1-k10, or k1+k2+k3...+k10
the first part of the equation (-1^k) should negate itself because k1=1. k2=-1, k3=1, k4=-1, and so on so that by k10 (or the sum to any even integer), it will be 0.
so that leaves the second part of the equation, 1 (1/2^k), or 1 x (1/2^k).
obviously, you can drop the 1.
so we are really just looking at the sum or (1/2)^1+(1/2)^2+...(1/2)^10
so....
(1/2)+(1/4)+(1/8 )+(1/16)+(1/32)+(1/64)+(1/128)+(1/256)+(1/512)+(1/1024)
the number starts at 1/2 and gets arbitrarily close to 1...how is it not C? _________________ It must have been love...but it's over now!
780 (49Q, 50V) |
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Magellan Rising GMAT Star
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Posted: Mon May 12, 2008 2:38 am Post subject: |
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| ptgbeauregard wrote: | that question is either incredibly poorly worded or the answer is wrong.
the way it reads, we are looking for the sum of k1-k10, or k1+k2+k3...+k10
the first part of the equation (-1^k) should negate itself because k1=1. k2=-1, k3=1, k4=-1, and so on so that by k10 (or the sum to any even integer), it will be 0.
so that leaves the second part of the equation, 1 (1/2^k), or 1 x (1/2^k).
obviously, you can drop the 1.
so we are really just looking at the sum or (1/2)^1+(1/2)^2+...(1/2)^10
so....
(1/2)+(1/4)+(1/8 )+(1/16)+(1/32)+(1/64)+(1/128)+(1/256)+(1/512)+(1/1024)
the number starts at 1/2 and gets arbitrarily close to 1...how is it not C? |
The first part does not negate itself... You get something like this:
(1/2) - (1/4) + (1/8 ) - (1/16) + (1/32) - (1/64) + (1/128) - (1/256)+(1/512) - (1/1024)
= 1/4 + 1/16 + 1/64 + 1/256 + 1/1024
--> Between 1/4 and 1/2
--> Ans is D |
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ptgbeauregard Rising GMAT Star
Joined: 09 May 2008 Posts: 41
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Location: Bethesda, MD Test Date: 6/16/08 Target GMAT Score: 750
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Posted: Mon May 12, 2008 6:38 am Post subject: |
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you're absolutely right. thanks. _________________ It must have been love...but it's over now!
780 (49Q, 50V) |
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ptgbeauregard Rising GMAT Star
Joined: 09 May 2008 Posts: 41
Thanks given: 5 Thanked 3 times in 3 posts
Location: Bethesda, MD Test Date: 6/16/08 Target GMAT Score: 750
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Posted: Mon May 12, 2008 7:00 am Post subject: |
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fyi i think my confusion came from how the question read when copied and pasted into the post. if you read the way i worked through it, i thought it was -1^k + 1(1/2^k). i actually saw this on a practice test and it read much more natiurally with raised type for the exponent, -1^(k+1)x(1/2^k).
hence the incorrect comment that the first part would negate itself. _________________ It must have been love...but it's over now!
780 (49Q, 50V) |
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