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## John Locke, Experts, please explain.

This topic has 2 expert replies and 34 member replies
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vielada@yahoo.com Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Joined
14 Nov 2011
Posted:
1 messages
Sat Feb 09, 2013 9:50 am
I think it's C. Waiting for an explanation

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umbe Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Joined
13 Jul 2015
Posted:
4 messages
Top Reply
Tue Jul 14, 2015 2:14 am
tpr-becky wrote:
one-third of the total output of
(30) consumer goods is attribut-
able to the use of capital
goods. Approximately two-
thirds of the income derived
from this total output is paid
(35) out to workers as wages and
salaries, the remaining third
serving as compensation
to the owners of the capital
goods. Moreover, part
(40) of this remaining third is
received by workers who
are shareholders, pension
beneficiaries, and the like.

This is hte passage the answer comes from and it basically says that Capital is responsible for 1/3 of the output and in return they gain 1/3 of the profit but have to pay some of that to workers who are shareholders etc..

C. This is true becuase they recieve a chaser and that share is 1/3 minus the part they pay out so it is no greater than the 1/3 you can attribute the output to.

d. We aren't sure about htis becuase it says fully compensated for their investment and we don't have enough info to knwo what that would be and it says they pay out MOST of their share to workers but the passage only says a part.

e. This may be true becuase they get their 2/3 plus extra if they are shareholders but the reason given for it goes beyond the passage.

Therefore, I believe C is the answer.
Moreover I would add that answer E is not correct because of the fact that receiving more doesn't depend by Locke's labor theory, the passage doesn't indicate that has an influence on modern economy

Rahul428 Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Joined
17 May 2013
Posted:
37 messages
Top Reply
Wed May 10, 2017 9:19 pm
My answer - C

umbe Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Joined
13 Jul 2015
Posted:
4 messages
Tue Jul 14, 2015 2:14 am
tpr-becky wrote:
one-third of the total output of
(30) consumer goods is attribut-
able to the use of capital
goods. Approximately two-
thirds of the income derived
from this total output is paid
(35) out to workers as wages and
salaries, the remaining third
serving as compensation
to the owners of the capital
goods. Moreover, part
(40) of this remaining third is
received by workers who
are shareholders, pension
beneficiaries, and the like.

This is hte passage the answer comes from and it basically says that Capital is responsible for 1/3 of the output and in return they gain 1/3 of the profit but have to pay some of that to workers who are shareholders etc..

C. This is true becuase they recieve a chaser and that share is 1/3 minus the part they pay out so it is no greater than the 1/3 you can attribute the output to.

d. We aren't sure about htis becuase it says fully compensated for their investment and we don't have enough info to knwo what that would be and it says they pay out MOST of their share to workers but the passage only says a part.

e. This may be true becuase they get their 2/3 plus extra if they are shareholders but the reason given for it goes beyond the passage.

Therefore, I believe C is the answer.
Moreover I would add that answer E is not correct because of the fact that receiving more doesn't depend by Locke's labor theory, the passage doesn't indicate that has an influence on modern economy

Rahul428 Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Joined
17 May 2013
Posted:
37 messages
Wed May 10, 2017 9:19 pm
My answer - C

akash singhal Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Joined
24 Apr 2015
Posted:
152 messages
Followed by:
3 members
Upvotes:
2
GMAT Score:
650
Sun May 03, 2015 12:47 am
The answer is C
A,B,D,E can easily be eliminated

C can be seen as quoted directly from the passage

jaspreetsra Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Joined
20 Sep 2014
Posted:
164 messages
Upvotes:
1
Target GMAT Score:
650
Mon Sep 29, 2014 11:37 pm
Option C looks fine.

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