Target Test Prep 20% Off Flash Sale is on! Code: FLASH20

Redeem
Target Test Prep Flash Sale
Target Test Prep is 20% off right now!
Use code FLASH20

Available with Beat the GMAT members only code

MORE DETAILS
Target Test Prep Flash Sale
Magoosh
Magoosh
Study with Magoosh GMAT prep

Available with Beat the GMAT members only code

MORE DETAILS
Magoosh

Investing

This topic has expert replies
Post new topic Post Reply
Previous Topic Next Topic
User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 144
Joined: Sun Aug 29, 2010 9:17 am
Thanked: 40 times
Followed by:4 members
GMAT Score:760

by jaymw » Thu Jun 09, 2011 5:51 am
edvhou812 wrote:
factor26 wrote:Hi

Can anyone explain the sentence "the gender distrinution for finance majors and non finance majors is the same."

The same as what? ... I actually just reread this again, gender distribution is referring to male and female (naturally) and
Each class of student finance or not. It just seems a little tricky here can someone better explain this?
The ratio between males and females among the majors is the same. For example: If there are 100 non-finance majors, 50 would be male and 50 would be female.
No. If it were like this, i.e. if in every major there were 50% females and 50% males, then that would go counter the statement that in total there are only 40% females.
Top
User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 1309
Joined: Mon Apr 04, 2011 5:34 am
Location: India
Thanked: 310 times
Followed by:123 members
GMAT Score:750

by cans » Thu Jun 09, 2011 5:59 am
In a given finance lecture, 30% of the students are finance majors, and 40% of the students are female. The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same. If one student is called on at random, what is the probability that the student is neither female nor a finance major?
let total=100
Finance=30
non finance=70
F=40
M=60
let gender ratio for finance and non finance be x female:1 male
thus female = x*30/(x+1) + x*70(x+1) = 40
x/(x+1)=2/5
x=2/3
thus 2female:3 male
thus 3 male per total 5 persons
out of 70 non finance, male = (3/5)*70 = 42
IMO D
If my post helped you- let me know by pushing the thanks button ;)

Contact me about long distance tutoring!
[email protected]

Cans!!
Top
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 11
Joined: Thu Jun 02, 2011 7:35 am

by Vish_ » Thu Jun 09, 2011 6:52 am
IMO D
Top
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 2
Joined: Thu Jun 30, 2011 11:43 pm

by gmatcruncher » Fri Aug 19, 2011 8:05 am
I go for option D.

I basically did simple maths and used approximation.

Knowing that 70% are non finance majors and the distribution of 60-40 for male-female:

50% (as an approximation of 60% requested) of 70% (non finance majors) = 35.

It has to be a little bit more than that and looking at the questions, 42% (option D) is the closest to that figure.

I prefer to use simple maths and use the answers rather that go into maths and potentially make a mistake.
Top
Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 72
Joined: Wed Oct 27, 2010 2:06 am
Thanked: 2 times
Followed by:1 members

by saurabh2525_gupta » Sun Aug 21, 2011 7:18 am
jaymw wrote:
edvhou812 wrote:
factor26 wrote:Hi

Can anyone explain the sentence "the gender distrinution for finance majors and non finance majors is the same."

The same as what? ... I actually just reread this again, gender distribution is referring to male and female (naturally) and
Each class of student finance or not. It just seems a little tricky here can someone better explain this?
The ratio between males and females among the majors is the same. For example: If there are 100 non-finance majors, 50 would be male and 50 would be female.
No. If it were like this, i.e. if in every major there were 50% females and 50% males, then that would go counter the statement that in total there are only 40% females.
The statement means that the females are evenly distributed between finance majors and non-finance majors. Implies that females/males(in finance majors) = females/males(in non-finance majors).

40% of 70%(Non finance major total students) = 40/100 * 70% = 28%
40% of 30%(Finance major total students) = 40/100 * 30% = 12%

If we add the two figures 28% + 12% = 40%. This can be done to cross check the answer.

Best Regards,
JOHN
Top
Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 90
Joined: Thu Nov 05, 2009 9:14 am
Thanked: 5 times
Followed by:3 members

by immaculatesahai » Thu Dec 15, 2011 12:14 am
The key to the problem was realizing that the ratio of male to female is constant in finance and non finance majors.

Just draw a table:

SO, ans is 42%
Attachments
table.JPG
Table
Top
User avatar
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 18
Joined: Tue Jan 10, 2012 12:12 pm

by amanpreet » Tue Feb 21, 2012 3:23 pm
60% (male) of 70 ( non Finance)= 42.
Top
User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 626
Joined: Fri Dec 23, 2011 2:50 am
Location: Ahmedabad
Thanked: 31 times
Followed by:10 members

by ronnie1985 » Fri Mar 30, 2012 10:07 am
Using Venn diagram
(D) 42% is the ans
Follow your passion, Success as perceived by others shall follow you
Top
User avatar
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 18
Joined: Mon Mar 19, 2012 12:53 pm

by joshhowatt » Mon Apr 30, 2012 9:21 am
shovan85 wrote:
DanaJ wrote:Source: Veritas Prep

In a given finance lecture, 30% of the students are finance majors, and 40% of the students are female. The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same. If one student is called on at random, what is the probability that the student is neither female nor a finance major?

A) 70%
B) 60%
C) 58%
D) 42%
E) 30%

Experts: only Veritas Prep experts, please!
IMO D

Draw a box diagram as shown below. The 4 parameters here are Female, Male, Finance major, Non Finance major.

As it is in percentage take the total as 100. (Shown in Yellow)

30% of the students are finance majors (shown in Yellow) and 40% of the students are female (shown in Yellow)

Thus, remaining total Non finance students 70%(shown in Orange) and 60% of the students are male (shown in Orange).

Say female non finance be x then female finance will be 40-x
Say male non finance be y then female finance will be 60-y

Now question says The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same.

Thus x/(40-x) = y/(60-y) ...(1)

and we know x+y = 70 then x = 70-y.

Put 70-y at the place of x in eqn(1) thus solving we get y = 42 (shown red)

Now see what is y? It is the student neither female nor a finance major.

Thus 42/100 = 42%
I don't know what in the world I'm doing wrong (I'm certain a total brain fart), but when I plug 70-y back into equation (1), I'm getting -30y=4200. Where am I going wrong. I see the logic. I just for the life of me cannot figure out where I'm going wrong.
Top
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 22
Joined: Thu Jun 28, 2012 10:38 am

by surmilsehgal » Tue Aug 14, 2012 11:11 am
Answer is D
Top
Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 37
Joined: Mon Oct 10, 2011 2:27 am
Thanked: 2 times

by ritzzzr » Fri Feb 15, 2013 2:26 am
Ans is 42 %
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 171
Joined: Tue Jan 08, 2013 7:24 am
Thanked: 1 times

by rajeshsinghgmat » Tue Feb 19, 2013 9:33 am
D, 0.42
Top
User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 234
Joined: Tue Jul 16, 2013 9:00 am
Location: West Virginia
Thanked: 9 times

by Java_85 » Fri Sep 13, 2013 8:57 am
1-p(finance or female)=1-(.4+.3-.12)=42% --> D
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 447
Joined: Fri Nov 08, 2013 7:25 am
Thanked: 25 times
Followed by:1 members

by Mathsbuddy » Fri Dec 20, 2013 6:13 am
No diagrams required:
A = P(not female and not finance) = 0.6 * 0.7 = 0.42
Top
Legendary Member
Posts: 518
Joined: Tue May 12, 2015 8:25 pm
Thanked: 10 times

by nikhilgmat31 » Mon Jul 06, 2015 12:56 am
This is a little difficult statement to understand, otherwise question is good & easy.

The gender distribution for finance majors and non-finance majors is the same.


42% is the answer.
Top
Post new topic Post Reply