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had had question

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Atult718 Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts Default Avatar
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14 Mar 2007
Posted:
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had had question

Post Wed Apr 18, 2007 4:20 am
His wife divorced him because he HAD HAD an affair.

If she had had more money, she would have bought herself a new dress.


So, my question is.... why had had ? The book says - "First had signals the past perfect tense while the second had is the past participle of the verb to have".

It gives me a rough idea, I kind of understand it. But, can anyone give me a simpler rule or explanation?

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isisalaska Community Manager Default Avatar
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Post Wed Apr 18, 2007 5:51 am
the second "had" is the past participle tense of the verb "to have" needed with the tense. Since this is a situation that ocurred in the past and ended (hopefully Wink )

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