Coin flip questions made easy

Problem Solving — algebra and arithmetic (GMAT Focus Edition)
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question about how to apply the formula

by mmgmat2008 » Thu Nov 27, 2008 3:24 pm
I love your formula. Thank you for inventing such a convenient formula. However, I don't know why I need to pick the third numbe rof your first formula regarding to the questions of 2 heads in a 3 flips. and so as the second and third questions. Can you please explain to me why you pick the third number but not the second number for 2 heads in 3 flips?

Thank you
mm

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mmgmat2008 wrote:I love your formula. Thank you for inventing such a convenient formula. However, I don't know why I need to pick the third numbe rof your first formula regarding to the questions of 2 heads in a 3 flips. and so as the second and third questions. Can you please explain to me why you pick the third number but not the second number for 2 heads in 3 flips?

Thank you
mm
I wish I could take credit for inventing the formula... well heck, I will, just don't tell any math majors! 8)

I assume you're talking about the n=3 row of Pascal's... err Stuart's triangle, which reads:

1 3 3 1

If we want the possibilities for 2 and 3 heads, we have to add the 3rd and 4th numbers in the row because the first number in every row matches 0 of the result you're looking for. You'll see that every row has n+1 entries, i.e. the 3 flip row has 4 entries, the 4 flip row has 5 entries, the 5 flip row has 6 entries, etc...

So, for the 3 row, the 4 entries represent:

1st number: 0 heads
2nd number: 1 head
3rd number: 2 heads
4th number: 3 heads

(just using heads as an example, we could have been counting tails and approached it the exact same way).

Hope that helps!
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by gmataug08 » Fri Nov 28, 2008 8:55 pm
what is the strategy to fill the numbers in the pascal triangle..
like, if I want to form a row for 7 coin flips, how to I do that?

btw, Great info... thanks a ton

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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Fri Nov 28, 2008 11:06 pm
gmataug08 wrote:what is the strategy to fill the numbers in the pascal triangle..
like, if I want to form a row for 7 coin flips, how to I do that?

btw, Great info... thanks a ton
You need to start with a row that you know and work your way down.

If, for example, you remember that the 3 row is 1 3 3 1, you create the next row by starting with 1 on each side and filling in the middle by adding the pairs above. So:

1
1 1
1 2 1
1 3 3 1
1 4 6 4 1
1 5 10 10 5 1
1 6 15 20 15 6 1
1 7 21 35 35 21 7 1

is the first 8 rows of the triangle (the first row is n=0). The second number in the row represent the row number (e.g. the second number of the n=7 row is 7).
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by gmatplayer » Wed Aug 19, 2009 7:21 pm
Icredible tool!!
Thanks

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by jagdeep » Sun Nov 22, 2009 6:29 pm
Can anyone answer this question please


a fair two sided coin is flipped 6 times. what is the probability that tails will be the result atleast twice but not more than 5 times

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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Mon Nov 23, 2009 12:25 am
jagdeep wrote:Can anyone answer this question please


a fair two sided coin is flipped 6 times. what is the probability that tails will be the result atleast twice but not more than 5 times
There are a few ways we can solve. Before we do, we need to understand exactly what the question is asking.

"At least twice but not more than 5 times" means that, out of 6 flips total, we want 2, 3, 4 or 5 tails; we don't want 0, 1 or 6 tails.

One way we could solve is using the coin flip formula:

Prob (k results out of n flips) = nCk/2^n

Since this is an alternative probability question (we want 2 tails OR 3 tails OR 4 tails OR 5 tails), we add the individual results to get:

(6C2 + 6C3 + 6C4 + 6C5)/2^6

We could also use the "one minus" approach and focus on what we don't want:

1 - (6C0 + 6C1 + 6C6)/2^6

This second approach is almost always quicker on at least/at most questions (the questions are designed to reward people who see creative solutions).

In this particular case, the second approach is super quick if we remember some combination shortcuts:

nC0 = 1
nC1 = n
nCn = 1

So, we get:

1 - (1 + 6 + 1)/64 = 1 - 8/64 = 1 - 1/8 = 7/8

Of course, the quickest way to solve is to use Pascal's Triangle. As noted in an earlier post in this thread, the 6 row of the triangle is:

1 6 15 20 15 6 1

Since we want 2, 3, 4 or 5 tails, we add up the 3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th entries in the row:

15 + 20 + 15 + 6 = 56

and divide by the sum of the entire row, 64,

to get:

56/64 = 7/8
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by moatazyousif » Sat Apr 03, 2010 11:36 am
Thanks a lot Stuart for this great tool and explaination.

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by mepinoargote » Thu Jun 17, 2010 3:38 pm
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
GMATCHPOINT wrote:(question from someone terrible in math)

Does it make sense to apply this formula on below question from OG11? If so, how can I do it? I have tried with no success.

From OG11 page 241 ex 173

THE PROBABILITY IS 1/2 THAT A CERTAIN COIN WILL TURN UP HEADS ON ANY GIVEN TOSS. IF THE COIN IS TO BE TOSSED THREE TIMES, WHAT IS THE PROBABILITY THAT ON AT LEAST ONE OF THE TOSSES THE COIN WILL TURN UP TAILS?

A) 1/8
B) 1/2
C) 3/4
D) 7/8
E) 15/16
The formula works very well for this question. First, let's simplify.

If we want AT LEAST 1 tails, then the only thing that we DO NOT want is all 3 heads.

Remember this general formula:

Prob (want) = 1 - Prob (don't want)

Applying that to this question:

Prob (at least 1 tails) = 1 - Prob (all 3 heads)

Prob(all 3 heads) = 3C3/2^3 = 1/8

Prob (at least 1 tails) = 1 - 1/8 = 7/8

Of course, you could also answer this question without the forumla, using a bit of logic and common sense.

The only result we don't want is HHH. For 3 flips, there are 2^3 = 8 total possible outcomes. If there's 1 outcome we don't want, there must be 7 outcomes that we do want, so the chance of getting what we want is 7/8.

You could also look at the n=3 row of Pascal's Triangle. The only thing we don't want is 0 tails, so if we add up 1 tails + 2 tails + 3 tails we get 3 + 3 + 1 = 7. The whole row totals to 8, so again we end up with an answer of 7/8.
Using the Coin flip formula, for the same question lets say now, we want that on at least two of the tosses the coin will turn up tails.

In other words, the probability of getting one head: P(getting one head)= 3C1/2^3 = 3/8

Can i conclude then, that for x number of tosses, the probablity of getting at least n tails (when n>1) equals to the probability of getting x-n heads???

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by sdilmanian » Tue Jun 07, 2011 5:26 am
Great stuff Stuart - I really do need a refresher in these concepts from my math days.

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by Fractal » Wed Sep 21, 2011 1:27 pm
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:I just typed up this detailed explanation to address a specific question and figured that I might as well share it with everyone!

Coin flip strategies

There are numerous ways to solve coin flip questions. One of the quickest is to apply the coin flip formula.

The probability of getting exactly k results out of n flips is:

nCk/2^n

For example , if one wanted to know the probability of getting exactly 3 heads out of 4 flips:

4C3/2^4 = 4/16 = 1/4

As quick as it was to apply the formula, there's an even BETTER way to solve coin flip questions, involving memorizing a few numbers.

Here are the numbers to remember:

1 3 3 1
1 4 6 4 1
1 5 10 10 5 1

Some of you may recognize those patterns as rows of numbers from Pascal's Triangle (I swear, I came up with them first :wink: ). The Triangle has a number of uses, but for GMAT purposes one of its most useful applications is to coin flip questions.

The first row applies to 3 flip questions, the second to 4 flip questions and the third to 5 flip questions.

Let's start with the first row, 1 3 3 1, and see how it helps.

"A fair coin is flipped 3 times. What's the probability of getting exactly 2 heads?"

The entries in the row represent the different ways to get 0, 1, 2 and 3 results, respectively. In our question, we want 2 heads, so we go to the 3rd entry in the row, "3".

To find the total number of possibilities, add up the row... 1+3+3+1 = 8

So, our answer is 3/8.

Going back to our original question (exactly 3 heads out of 4 flips):

4 row is 1 4 6 4 1

For 3 heads, we use the 4th entry: 4
Sum of the row is 16
Answer: 4/16 = 1/4

Let's look at a much more complicated question:

"A fair coin is flipped 5 times. What's the probability of getting at least 2 heads?"

If we want at least 2 heads, we want 2 heads, 3 heads, 4 heads OR 5 heads. Pretty much whenever we see "OR" in probability, we add the individual probabilities.

Looking at the 5 flip row, we have 1 5 10 10 5 1. For 2H, 3H, 4H and 5H we add up the 3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th entries: 10+10+5+1=26.

Summing the whole row, we get 32.

So, the chance of getting at least 2 heads out of 5 flips is 26/32 = 13/16.

Regarding this approach:

nCk/2^n

For example , if one wanted to know the probability of getting exactly 3 heads out of 4 flips:

4C3/2^4 = 4/16 = 1/4


How would you tackle the following question with the approach above?

The probability is 0.6 that an "unfair" coin will turn up tails on any given toss. If the coin is tossed 3 times, what is the probability that at least one of the tosses will turn up tails?

Thx a lot

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Coin flip questions made easy

by kumadil2011 » Fri Nov 18, 2011 8:41 pm
How can we solve the below problem using the same formula ?

https://www.beatthegmat.com/three-fair- ... 53691.html

tx

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Coin flip questions made easy

by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Mon Nov 21, 2011 3:50 pm
kumadil2011 wrote:How can we solve the below problem using the same formula ?

https://www.beatthegmat.com/three-fair- ... 53691.html

tx
That question asks you to solve for the standard deviation of a set; since the GMAT never asks you to solve for standard deviation, I have no idea why anyone would even want to solve that problem!
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by tomatos » Tue Mar 27, 2012 9:04 am
How do you solve
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
"A fair coin is flipped 3 times. What's the probability of getting exactly 2 heads?"
with nCk/2^n

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by gmathater2 » Thu Apr 19, 2012 6:41 am
Hi Stuart, i hope you are still checking this forum. First thank you for the formula, i'm solving all the coins exercises and more! I was just wondering, using you formula is it possible to use the following for die (dice) questions nCk/6^n? if not, is there a formula to make the die problems easier?

Best Regards