29-2

magical cook · Posted: Tue Aug 28, 2007 11:18 am Post subject: 29-2

Can you pls help with your explanation? thanks!

montz · Posted: Wed Aug 29, 2007 11:27 am Post subject:

Statement 1 is sufficient.
Diagonals divide a parallelogram into 2 triangles of equal areas.

magical cook · Posted: Wed Aug 29, 2007 2:53 pm Post subject:

Unfortunately the answer seems different.

Is anyone else able to help us?

Bharat · Posted: Thu Aug 30, 2007 12:21 am Post subject:

Let me know in case of any errors in below logic:
Note that for a triangle: Area = (base * height) /2
hence for any triangle the area will be constant so long as the base & height (vertical distance of top vertex from base) are constant
Which means that for a given base & height the area will be the same even if triangle is equilateral or isoceles or scalene.
1. same area does not mean that the side are of same measures or angles are in similar ratios. Hence Not Sufficient.
2. QR = RS : QRS is isoceles. However the other triangle has no restriction. Hence Not Sufficient.

Taken together: areas are same & QRS is isoceles, however, the triangle PQS may or may not be isoceles.

Hence answer should be E.

magical cook · Posted: Thu Aug 30, 2007 6:58 am Post subject:

thanks - answer is E.