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1/5 is equal to 0 with remainder of 1?

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bpdulog Really wants to Beat The GMAT!
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1/5 is equal to 0 with remainder of 1? Post Sun Nov 20, 2011 12:14 pm
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  • Lap #[LAPCOUNT] ([LAPTIME])
    "1/5 is equal to 0 with remainder of 1."

    This statement was made in GMAT Data Sufficiency Lesson 8. How is this even possible?

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    Post Sun Nov 20, 2011 12:28 pm
    I think it should read 1 when divided by 5, quotient is 0 and remainder is 1.

    bpdulog Really wants to Beat The GMAT!
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    Post Mon Nov 21, 2011 4:19 am
    How is that possible? I understand how there is a remainder when the number is larger than the divisor e.g., 14/6 = 2 with a remainder of 2. But how does this work with fractions?

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    Post Mon Nov 21, 2011 5:58 am
    bpdulog wrote:
    How is that possible? I understand how there is a remainder when the number is larger than the divisor e.g., 14/6 = 2 with a remainder of 2. But how does this work with fractions?
    Let me make it easy for you!

    Quote:
    e.g.1: dividend > divisor.Let dividend = 14 and divisor = 6
    14 = 12 + 2 = 2*6 + 2. If you divide 14 by 6,(2*6 + 2)/6 = 2 + 2/6. So the numerator of the left over(fraction) is the remainder(2).

    Quote:
    e.g.1: dividend < divisor.Let dividend = 1 and divisor = 5
    1 = 0*5 + 1. If you divide 1 by 5, (0*5 + 1)/5 = 0 + 1/5. So the numerator of the left over(fraction) is the remainder(1)

    Hope it helps !

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